| Special TNPSC 30 Dec 2007 |
| ... for regularising 153 Contract Medical Officers and 1352 Contract Medical Consultants
|
| Books for TNPSC |
TargetPG TNPSC 1995 - 2003 Book
TargetPG TNPSC Interview Buster
|
| TNPSC 2007 General |
|
TNPSC 2007 to be conducted for selecting 290 Assistant Surgeons
|
| TNPSC 2005 |
|
TNPSC 2005 conducted on 16 Oct 2005
|
| TNPSC 2003 |
| TNPSC 2003 conducted on 10 Oct 2003
|
TNPSC - Assistant Surgeon - Tamil Nadu medical Services - 11th Oct 2003
Interview from 27th Nov to 12 th Dec
Mark List on 13th Dec 2004
Selection List on 13th Jan 2004
1. Stave cells are present in
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Thymus
2. Parasympathetic component is present in all, except
A) S 2. 3. 4 spinal segments
B) Occulomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Facial nerve.
3. Left gonadal vein drains into
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Left renal vein
C) Splenic vein
D) Left internal iliac vein.
4. Herringbone pattern of the duct system is seen in
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Parotid gland
D) Submandibular gland.
5. Charcot's artery of cerebral haemorrhage is a branch of
A) Middle cerebral
B) Anterior cerebral
C) Posterior communicating
D) Posterior cerebral.
6. The Commonest type of vermiform appendix is
A) Sub-caecal
B) Splenic
C) Retro-caecal
D) Promontoric.
7 ..Coracoid process is an example for
A) Pressure epiphysis
B) Traction epiphysis
C) Atavistic epiphysis ,
D) Aberrant epiphysis.
8. Division of centromere perpendicular to the long axis of the chromosome
A) Ring chromosome
B) Iso-chromosome
C) Metacentrtc chromosome
D) Philadelphia chromosome.
9. Chemical that arrests the cell division at Metaphase stage is
A) Trypsin
B) Colchicine
C) Quinacrine
D) Phytohemagglutinin.
10. Chromosonal configuration in Klinefelter's syndrome is
A) 47, XY, + 21
B) 47, XXX
C) 47, XXY
D) 46, XY.
11. The following are the boundaries of Douglas Pouch, except
A) anteriorly posterior surface of uterus
B) posteriorly rectum
C) laterally sacrogenital folds
D) floor, rectovaginal fold.
12. The following are the branches of superior mesentric artery. except
A) Middle colic
B) ileo-colic
C) Left colic
D) Right colic.
13. In aneuploidy. there is
A) non-disjunction in a meiotic division
B) unequal distribution of a pair of homologous chromosomes
C) trisomy for two different chromosomes
D) an exact multiple of the haploid number .
14. The main pancreatic duct is formed from
A) whole portion of the duct of ventral pancreatic bud
B) distal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
C) proximal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
D) proximal portion of the duct of ventral pancreatic bud.
15. The bursae that are affected when a person kneels for a iong time are
A) subcutaneous prepatellar bursae
B) subcutaneous infrapatellar bursae
C) deep infrapetallar bursae
D) suprapatellar bursae.
16. In the hUman embryo. the yolk sac is a source of
A) Primordial germ cells
B) blood cells
C) fat
D) water .
17. Following are the main characters of large intestine. except .
A) Sacculations
B) Villi
C) Taeniae coli
D) Appendices epiploicae.
18. The lining epithelium of Trachea is
A) simple columnar epithelium .
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) pseudo stratified ciliated epithelium. ,
D) ciliated columnar epithelium.
19. The right bronchus is
A) Long. narrow
B) Short, straight
C) Short. oblique
D) Long. oblique.
20. All of the following will support the heart and keep in position, except
A) sternopericardialligaments
B) ligamerlts of vertebral column I
C) Diaphragmatic Attachment
D) attachment of pericardium to great vessels.
21. The initial thromboplastin for clotting comes from
A) Platelets
B) Liver
C) Mast cells
D) Damaged vessel wall and surrounding tissues.
.
22. First degree heart block is identified in the E.C.G. by
A) prolonged QRS complex
B) shortened QRS complex
C) Prolonged P- R inteIVal
D) prolonged P-R inteIVal with dropped beats of the ventricles.
23. The physiological split of the second heart sound is better heard during
A) breath holding
B) Inspiration .
C) expiration
D) valsalva manouevre.
24. Marey's law states
A) ~ blood pressur~ is inversely proportional to heart rate
B) heart rate is inversely proportional to blood pressure
C) heart rate is directly proportional to blood pressure
D) blood pressure is directly proportional to heart rate.
25. Inspiration is characterised by all, except
A) increased venous return -"'
B) increased heart rate
C) increased negative intrathoracic pressure
D) increased arterial pressure.
26. The overall normal ventilation-perfusion ratio is
A) 0.2
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.8.
27. Oxygen therapy is not useful in the following conditions, except
A) Anaemia
B) Pulmonary oedema
C) Stagnant hypoxia
D) Histotoxic hypoxia.
28. As urine enters the renal 'collecting ~ucts, it is
A) Hypotonic
B) Isotonic
C) Hypotonic or Isotonic but never Hypertonic
D) Isotonic or HypertoniC but never Hypotonic.
29. Hypernatremia can cause the following, except
A) cessation of ADH release from posterior pituitary
B) increased circulating levels of atriarnartriuretic peptide
C) increased tonicity of E.C.F. compartment
D) dehydration of ~tracellular fluid compartment.
30. Pineal gland is the chief source of
A)Melatonin
B) Seratonin
C) Bradykinin
D) Histamine.
31. Pituitary exerts very little control on the regulation of secretion of
A) Thyroxine
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Glucocorticoid.
32. Thyroxine is stored in the thyroid gland in the fonn of
A) Tri-iodothyronine
B) Tetra-iodothyronine
C) ThyroglobuliJi
D) Gamma Globulin
33. Calcium absorption in the small intestine is increased by
A) presence of oxalates in the diet
B) increased absorption of Sodium in the gut
C) j 1 -25 dihyroxy cholecalciferol
D) presence of Iron in the gut epithelium.
34. During nonnal menstrual cycle. ovulation occurs as a result of
A) excess Oestrogen level
B) low Oestrogen level
C) surge of leutlnizing hormone
D) low level of HCG.
35. Failure of the testis to descend ( Cryptorchidism) :
A) is associated with failure to produce testosterone
B) does not interfere with fertility
C) should be treated by injections of- testosterone
D) makes it more prone to malignant change. 'c -
..
36. Loss of Liver function tends to cause all. except
A) a fall in the level of alpha and beta but not gamma globulins
B) increase in breast size ( gynaecomastia ) in male
C) a rise in the level of unconjugated bilinIbin in the blood
D) a rise in the plasma urea level. .'
37. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy, a congenital muscular disorder due to
absence of muscle protein,
A) Actin .
B) Myosin
C) Dystrophin
D) Troponin.
38. In Sensory Aphasia,
A) Wemick's area is damaged
B) spoken word is not understood
C) there 1s incoherence in spoken words
D) there is word blindness.
39. Which one of the following is not the extrapyramidal tract ?
A) Reticulospinal "
B) Corticospinal
C) Vestibulospinal
D) Olivospinal.
40. A patient shows involuntary athetoid movements. He probably has
A) lesion in the cerebral cortex
B) hypothalamic lesion
C) cerebellar lesion
D) lesion in basal ganglion.
41. Fetal haemoglobin
A) disappears from circulation after birth
B) has dissociation curve identical to maternal haemoglobin
C) is identical immunochemically to maternal haemoglobin
D) " is identical physiochemically to maternal haemoglobin.
42. Elevate T4 Reduced T3 Uptake together suggest the likelihood of
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) ~Hypothyroidism
C) Secondary hyperthyroidism
D) Increased TBG .
43. Catecholamine brings immediate hyper-glycemic effect by the follow
processes, except
A) glycogenolysi is promoted
B) increasing fructose 1, 6 Bisphosphatase activity
C) inhibiting uptake of amino acids
D) inhibiting insulin secretioIl
44. Cushing's syndrome is characterised by the following features, except
A) poor muscle development
B) .poor wound healing
C) salt and water retention ,.(
D) decrease in cardiac size.
45. The vehicles of transport of triacyl glycerol from the liver to extrahepatic tiSSt
" are
A) chylomicrons
B) low density lipoproteins
C) high density lipoproteins
D) very low density lipoproteins.
46. Prostoglandins are liberated in the circulation by the stinlulation of
A) anterior pituitary gland
B) posterior pituitary gland
C) adrenal gland .
D) thyroid gland.
47. The concentration of sphingomyelins is increased in
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Fabry's disease
C) Fabrile's disease
D) Niemann-Pick disease.
48. Ref sum's disease is due to the defect in the following type of oxidation in fal
acid
A) Alpha oxidation
B) Beta oxidation
C) Gamma oxidation
D) Omega oxidation.
49. Serum sodium and potassium are estimated using the following technique :
A) Electrophoresis ,.
B) Flame photometry
C) Colorimetry
D) Chromatography.
50. Milk is rich in all the following, except
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium.
51. The acid base disturbance met in diabetic ketoacidosis is
A) respiratory acidosis
B) respiratory alkalosis
C) metabolic alkalosis .
D) metabolic acidosis.
52. All of the following substfmces have been used to .estimate GFR, except
A) Inusulin
B) Creatinine
C) Phenol red
D) Mannitol.
53. The nephrotic syndrome is characterised by the following features, except
A) Massive proteinuria exceeding 3 gm in 24 hours urine
B) Serum cholesterol level is below 150 mg/ dl
C) Serum albumin is below 2.5 gm/dl
D) Elevated a 2 globulin in serum.
54. Normal level of inorganic phosphate in plasma of a normal adult is
A) 9- 11 mg/dl
B) 8-13 mg/dl
C) 3- 4 mg/dl
D) 3- 5 gms/dl.
---
55. Hypokalemic Acidosis with normal anion GAP occurs in all. except
A) Renal failure
B) Uretero sigmoidostomy
C) Acute diarrhoea
D) Diuretic therapy.
56. .In protein bound Iodine, the substance which is bound to protein is
A) T 3 and T 4
B) T 3 alone
C) Iodine..
D) T4 alone
57. Sodium level in serum is increased in
A) Addison's disease
B) Hashimoto's disease
C) Carcinoid syndrome .
D) Cushing's syndrome. "
58. The most sensitive diagnostic enzyme for hepatic jaundice is /
A) Acid phosphatase ;.
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C).SGPT
D) SGOT.
59. Elevation of the following honnone occurs in .~heochromocytoma' :
A) Anderosterone ,
B) Catecllolamine I
C) Glucocorticosteroid
D) Mineralocorticosteroid. °~,
60. van den Bergh Test is biphasic in
A) Hepatocellular jaundIce
B) Hemolytic anaemia
C) Obsti"uctive jaundice
D) Rh incompatibility.
61. Excessive bleeding from birth canal and uterus in amniotic fluid embolism due to
A) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
B) Pulmonaryoedema ! ;';'~~(
C) Pulmonary vasoconstriction" ~
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.-
62. Spl.eenic infarct is, a
A) pale infarct
B) red infarct
C) septic infarct
D) bland infarct.
63. Wound healing by replacement of fibrous tissue is
A) repair
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) resolution.
64. The commonest benign tumour of salivary gland is
A) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma
B) Monomorphic salivary adenoma
C) Warth1n's tumour
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
65. Under normal conditions rigor mortis develops
A) after 24 hrs
B) after 48 hrs
C) immediately
D) within 4- 8 hrs.
66. Commonest histologic type of lung can~r is
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Adenosquamous carcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma. ~
67. Ballooning degeneration is a feature of
A) Chronic active hepatitis ,
B) Chronic persistent hepatitis
C) Acute viral hepatitis
D) Fulminant hepatitis.
68. Mental retardation is characteristic of
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Marfan's syndrome .
C) Trisomy-21
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.
69. The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is
A) primary hyperplasia
B) parathyroid adenoma
C) parathyroid carcinoma
D) MEN syndrome Type I.
70. In shock. the renal changes are
A) Acute tubular necrosis
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Chronic venous congestion
D) Chronic glomerulonephritis.
71. Adherence of neutrophil and monocyte to the vascular endothelium prior tc
movement into extravascular compartment is called
A) Margination
B) Diapedesis
C) Pavementing
D) Clotting.
72. Mallory body ireen in the following, except
A) AlCOholiC liver disease
B) Indian childhood cirrhosis
C) primarY biliary cirrhosis
D) yellow fever .
73. IgA is mostly synthesized by
A) , Payer's patches of small intestine
B) .1 plasma cells of bone marrow
C) partetal cells of gastric mucose
D) none of these. ,
74. Lymphomas ate monoclonal only. This can be detected by
A) .special stain study
B) chromosomal study..,,' \,;j
C) isoenzyme markers and clonal gene rearrangements ,
D) enzyme histochemistry and karyotyping.
75. mcerative lesions in typhoid fever in intestine aI;e ~: !
A) J longitudinal ulcers
B) superficial ulcers .j~
C) transverse ulcers
D) transmural ulcers. ""rif"
76. Which of the following markers is associated with placental trophoblastl
tumor ?
A) Human placental lactogen
B) .Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Carcinoembryonil antigen
D) Acid phospholase.
77. Exfoliative cytology is useful for the diagnosis of
A) Meningioma
B) Multiple Myeloma
C) Cervical cancer
D) Teratoma of ovary .
78.The first malignancy In which cancer suppressor gene was discovered is
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Hepatoblastoma
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Nephroblastoma.
79. The tumour suppressor gene is
A) P-53
B) bcl-2
C) C-erb
D) ras.
80. The following are mainly Intracellular parasites, except
A).J Echinococcus granulosus
B) Leishmania donovan!
C) Plasmodium vivax
D} Toxoplasma Gondii. ,
81. Prodrug is
A) lI1inactlve drug which gets activated in body
B) metabolic end product
C) drug which competes with another for metabolism
D) drug which Increases efficiency of another drug. k /
82. Therapeutic Index of a drug .
A) denotes its utility In diseases
B) .,I denotes its margIn of safety
C) gives clue for its Interaction with other drugs .
D) deternlines the potency of the drug.
83. All of the following drugs are microsomal enzyme inducers, except
A) carbamazeplne
B) cimetidlne
C) chloral hydrate
D) refampicln.
84. When the rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration, it is
A) zero order kinetics
B) first order kinetics
C) second order kinetics
D) third order kinetics.
85. The follo~g general anaesthetics sensitlse the myocardium to epinephr
except
A) Diethyl ether/ ;~
B) Halothane
C) Chloroform
D). Cyclopropane.
86. Drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is
A) Droperidol + Fentanyl + Nitrous oxide
B) Droperidol + Ketamine
C) Droperidol + Fentanyl
D) Droperidol + Theopental + Nitrous oxide.
87. The drug of choice to prolong the duration of action of xylocaine is
A) Norepinephline
B) Phenylephrine
C) Desmopressin .
D) Epinephrine.
88. The spinal anaesthesia rnaygive riSe to the following side effects, except
A) hypotension
B) hepatic necrosis
C) headache
D) cardiac arrest.
89. One of the following drugs produces dissociative anaesthesia :
A) chloroform
B) halothane
C) ketarnine
D) none of these.
90. Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of one of the following agents: :'(~tl
A) Meperidine
B) Atropine
C) Hepartn
D) Strychnine.
.
91. The following agents are used in Acute Myocardial Infarction. -except
A) FibrinolytiC
B) Aspirin
C) Antifibrinolytics
D) Heparin.
92.Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of one of the following drugs :
A) Diphenyl hydantoin
B).INH
C) Tetracycline
D) Vitamins.
93. The safest tetracycline for extra-renal Infection in a patient with renal failure is
A) Methacycline
B) Oxytetracycline
C) Doxycycline
D) Demeclocycline.
94. The vitamin given forprophyIms of Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis is
A)Isotretinoin ,
B) Thiamine
C) RiboflaVin
D)Pyridoxine
95. Quinidine is contraindicated in
A)Atrial flutter
B) Atrial fibrillatiOnJ
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Digitalis toxicity .
96..All of the.. following drugs are used in Hypertensive emergencies, exC(!pt
A)Hydrallazine
B), labetalol
C) Minoxidil .
D) Thiazide.
97. The Beta Blocker with local Anesthetic effect is ~ ~(.t5<
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol ~
C) Pindolol
D) T1moloL
98. Rebound hypertension is seen with
A) Thiazide
B) Reserpine
C) Guanethidene
D) " Clonidine.
.
99. Which of the following drugs is used to dissolve Gall bladder stone ?
A) Clofibrate
B) " Chenodeoxycholic acid
C) I..actulose
D) Lithocholic acid.
lOO. Which of the following drugs is not an antitussive ?
A) ti Meperidine
B) Noscapine
C)- Codeine
D) Diphenhydramine.
101. Common cause of Kussmaul's sign is
A) Tricuspid incompetence
B) Acute left ventricular failure
C) J Constrictive pericarditis
D) Ebstein's disease.
102. The commonly recommended investigation. to detect and study the arteri~
insufficiency of a limb is
A) Pulse oxymeter
B) Doppler Duplex Imaging
C) Arteriography
D) Digital subtraction angiography.
103. Which of the following personality disorders has been linked to Alcoholism :
relatives ?
A) Borderline
B) Histrionic
C) Antisocial
D) Avoidant.
104. What is the major area of Brain implicated in Alzheimer's disease and Arnnes1
disorders ?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Thalamus'
D) Parietal lobe.
105. All of the following statements about Delirium are true. except
A) illusion may occur
B) autonomic dysfunction may occur
C) it usually resolves without treatment
D) cognitive impairment is worse at night.
106. Choose the nonatherogenic lipoprotein :
A) Low densitylipt>protein
B} Very low density lipoprotein J
C) Cholestrol
D) "' High density lipoprotein.
107. Down's syndrome babies die of
A) accidents
B) cardiac failure
C) acute Myeloid Leukaemia
D) all of these.
108. Strider in infancy is due to
A) asthmatic bronchitis
B) bronchiolitis
C) nasal block .
D) ,1 acute laryngotracheal bronchitis.
109. Milk feeds are contraindicated in -~.:~,
A)~ Galactosemia
B) Phenyl ketonuria
C) Hereditary lactose intolerance.
D) .J A11 of these.
110. Which drug is used in the treatment of neurocysticercosis ?
A)Mebendazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Albendazole
D) Pyrantel Pamoate
111. Name the drug used for increasing breast milk secretion.
A) Prednisolone
B) Metranidazole
C) .1 Metodopramide
D) Cizapride.
112. What complication will you suspect when a child with diarrhoeal dehydration.
develops hypotonia and paucity of limb movements ?
A) Poliomyelitis
B) Acute renal failure
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyponatremia.
113. Wtlat vafcine is specifically recommended for children with nephrc
syndjme ?
A) I. 'Pneumococcal vaccine
B) Haemophilus Influenza vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine.
114. What is the most likely diagnosis when a neonate has respiratory distre
scaphoid abdomen and a deXtroposed heart ?
A) Kartagner's syndrome
B) "' Diaphragmatic hernia
C) Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
D) Choana! atresia.
115. Malignant pustule is caused by
A) Ps. Aerogenosa
B) B. Anthrax
C) Cl. Welschii
D) Anaerobic Streptococci.
116. Investigation of choice to demonstrate Vesicoureteric Reflux is
A) IVP
B) Cystoscopy
C) -i Contrast MCU
D) Isotope GYstogram.
117. When a patient with a history of fall presents days later with headache a
progressive neurological deterioration. the diagnosis is
A) acute subdural Haematoma
B) extradural Haematoma
C) J chronic subdural Haematoma
D) fracture base of skull.
118. Appendicectomy is not advised in
A) recurrent type with abscess
B) recurrent type without abscess
C) gangrene
D) Crohn's disease.
119. Tardy Ulnar pp.lsy is due to
A) Cubitus Valgus ~
B) Osteo-arthrosis of Elbow
C) Fracture of Lateral Epicondyle of Humerus
D)Arthrodesis of Elboe
120. Klippel-Feil Syndrome is due to
A) caries of the cervical spine
B) congenital agenesis of one or more cervical spine J
C) agenesis of clavicle and skull bones
D) vitamin deficiency.
121. Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis is differentiated from Orbital cellulitis by
A) J both eyes involved
B) eye movements painful
C) proptosis
D) sub-conjunctival haemorrhage.
122. Coronary Arteries perfuse the following, except
A) Pericardium
B) " Endocardium
C) Myocardium
D) Sub-endocardium.
123. Bennet's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of
A) 1st Metacarpal
B) lst Metatarsal
C) 2nd Metacarpel
D)4th Metacarpel.
124. When the wound is badly contaminated with dirt and organic material, which
the following should be done ?
A)Amputation
B) Debridement
C) Delayed primary suture
D) Secondary suture.
125. Which of the factors is the best guideline .to assess the prognosis in bI
cancer ?
A) Age of the patient and menstrual status
B) Duration of the tumour
C) Size of the tumour and nodal status./
D) Histological grading of the tumour.
126. Sceleroderma commonly involves
A) Oesphagus
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Colon.
127. High lactoferin level in pancreatic juice is found in
A) Hypoparathyroidism
B) Breast Cancer
C) Chronic pancreatitis
D) All of these.
128. The most common cause for the oral cancer is
A) usage of tobacco o
B) presence of leukoplakia
C) presence of sharp .spiky tooth
D) chronic gum disease.
129. Hemorrhagic fever is associated with the following viral infections, except
A) dengue fever
B) lassa fever
C) J yellow feve~
D) parvovirus infection.
130 All contribute to atherosclerosis, except
A) consumption of sea foods..
B) oral contraceptives
C) pipe smoking
D) increased amount of consumption of fast food.
131. Concentric diminution of ~ion ( Tunnel vision) occurs in
A) Glaucoma J
B) Retinal diseases
C) Papilloedema progressing to optic atrophy
D) all of these.
132. Myasthenia gravis is associated with
A) Thymic Aplasia
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) .1 Serum acetyl choline antibodies.
133. What is true ofVitamin K ?
A) Antibiotics interfere with synthesis of Vitamin K
B)- Deficiency common in biliary obstruction
C) Prothrombin time increased in deficiency
D) .I' All are true.
134. Ketoacidosis occurs in
A) Diabetes
B) Alcoholism .
C) St.aIVatlon
D) / All of these.
135. Ascitls Precox occurs in
A) constructive pericarditis
B) cirrhosis of liver
C) inferior vena cava obstruction
D) .1 all of these.
136. St. Depression in Ecs occur in
A) Angina
B) Digoxin Toxicity
C) LV Strain
D) All of these.
137. Massive ha:emoptysis with chest pain occurs in
A)pulmoary infarction
B) dissecting aneurysm
C) myocarditis
D) none of these.
138. The earliest manife~tion of Sheehan's syndrome is ,
A) Hypotension
B) .1 Failure of lactation
C) Virllization
D) Skin changes.
139. Neuromuscular causes of dysphagia are the following, except
A) Diphtheria
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Histoplasmosis.
140. Thyroid myxoedema can be differentiated from pituitary myxoedema by
e.xamination of
A) skin changes
B) cardiac enlargement Harrison 14th Edition Page 2022
C) axillary and pubic hair
D) all of these.
141. Conditions in which obesity is an associated feature include all, except
A) Laurence Moon-Biedl syndoome .
B) Steven Leventhal syndrome
C) . Grave's disease
D) Cushing's syndrome.
142. Diarrhoea is a manifestation in thefollowiIig conditions, except
A) Pheochromocytoma
B) Carcinoid syndrome
C) Addison's disease
D) Myxoedema.
143. Causes of dark coloured urine are
A) Haemogloblnuria
B) Alkaptanuria
C) Methaemoglobinuria
D) " all of these.
144. All are associated with massive proteinuria, except
A) AmyloidOSiS'(1 :'f
B) Renal vein thrombosis
C) i PolycystiC" ~dney
D) Polyarteritis nodosa. ~.1 ~
145. Causes of exudative pleuja1 effusion include all. except
A)Meig's syndrome
B) Pulmonary infarction
C) Carcinoma of bronchus
D) Pneumonia.
146. Incorrect about ARDS is
A) high tidal volume
B) high respiratory rate
C) high lung compliance {
D) high pulmonary capillary pressure.
147. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is characterised by all. except
A) prolonged P .R interval
B) wide QRS complex and delta wave
C) congenital condition
D) verapamil should not be used. "
148. All are true in disseminated inftavascular coagulation. except
A) prothrombin time prolonged
B) partial thromboplastin time prolonged
C) thrombin time prolonged
D) platelet count increased-
149. Sullage consists of
A) Solid vegetable waste matter
B) Inorganic waste
C) Waste containing human excreta
D) Waste water from kitchen. ~~
150. The systematic study of human disease and social factors is
A)Social physiology :~'c.
B) Social pathology ..-~~
C) Socialised medicine
D ) Social medicine..
151" The freshly prepared ORS ( Oral Rehydration Solution) should not be used aft
A) 6 hours.
B) 12 hours
C) 18 hou~s
D) 24 hours.
152. WHO defines anaemia in pregnancy as Hb less than
A) 6.5 G%
B) 8.5 G%
C) 11 G%
D) 12 G%.
153. Foeto-maternal transfusion is detected by
A) .1 Kleihauser's test
B) Spectrophototherapy
C) Benzidine test
D) none of these.
154. In carcinoma of cervix with spread to lateral pelvic walls, treatment of choice 1:
A) surgery
B) chemotherapy
C) -.I radiotherapy
D) intracavitory radiotherapy.
155. Least common complication of fibroid is
A) Calcification
B) .Red degeneration
C) Hyaline change
D) Jl\I1alignancy.
156. Uncommon cause of infertility in female is
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Tuberculosis ,
C) Gonorrhoea
D) IMycoplasma.
157. Insulin requirement in a pregnant diabetic woman is decreased in
A) bacterial infection
B) viral infection
C) exercise
D) .,I hyperemesis gravidarum.
158. Iron prophylaxis in a pregnant woman is started at
A) 6 weeks
B) ./ 10 weeks -
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks.
159Carcinoma ceIVix\may be caused by
A) Herpes simplex
B) Syphilis
C) Papilloma virus if
D) 1iichomonas.
160. )e most common cause of hypoftbrtnogenaemia Is
A) Foetal death in utero-
B) Abruptio placenae
C) Placenta previa
D) Septic abortIon.
161. The most common presentation in anencephaly Is
A)Facei.
B) Brow
C) Vertex
D) Shoulder.
162. Encirclage operation stitch should be removed 'v
A) after delivery
B) at labour
C) at 38 weeks
D) at-28 weeks.
163. Congenital atresIa of the lower genital tract may cause
A) Menorrhagia
B) Second~ Amenorrhoea
C) Hypomenorrhoea'
D) Cryptic menorrhoea. "
164. The treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma Is
A) Methotrexate ,
B) RadIcal hysterectomy
C) Radium
D) External radiotherapy.
165. Greenish vaginal dIscharge with severe Itching Is due to ,
A) CandidiasIs
B) Senile vaginitis
C) Trichomoniasis .
D) pyogenic vaginitis.
166. .Clue Cells' are diagnostic of
A) Trtchomoniasis
B) Candidiasis
C) Chlamydia
D) , Haemophilus vaginalis vaginitis.
167. The regional lymph node to the ovary is
A) common iliac.
B) internal iliac
C) inferior epigastriC"
D) I para-aortlc.
168. The ratio of weight of mature placenta to that. of the foetus at term is
A) 1 : 2
B) 1 : 4
C) 1 : 6
D) 1 : 8.
169. Following are the sampling techniques used to conduct community hea11
surveys, except
A) Simple random
B) Systemati
C) Stratified
D) Cluster testing.
170. Which of the following is primordial prevention ?
A) Action taken prior to the onset of disease
B) " Prevention of emergence of develQpment. of risk factors
C) Action taken to remove the possibility that a disease will ever occur
D) Action which halts the progress of a disease.
171. WHO was established in
A) 1945
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1956.
172. Match List I correctly with List D and select your answer using the codes give
below:
: List I List D
a) Papaya fruit 1. Calcium
b) Soya beans 2. VitammC
c) Ragi 3. Protein
id) Amla fruit 4. Vitamin A.
Codes:
/ a b c d
A) 4 3 I 2 ;,
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1 ift";
D) I 2 3 4.
173. Salk vaccine is a
A) Live vaccine
B) Live atteriuated vaccine
C) Killed vaccine
D) Toxoid.
174. The commonest mode of transmission of AIDS in India is ~
A) Transplacental, homosexual, heterosexual
B) Homosexual, heterosexual, transplacental
C) Heterosexual, transplacental, homosexual
D) Heterosexual, homosexual, transplacental.
.
175. Conventional contraceptive includes one of the following :
A) Condom
B) Copper- T
C) Oral pills
D) Tubectomy.
176. In which stage of the demographic cycle is India ?
A) High stationary .,
B) Late expanding
C) Early stationary
D) Low stationary.
177. Framingham Heart Study is an example of
A) Case control stud
B) Cohort study
C) Cross-sectlonal study" ,
D) Interventional study.
178. Hundred day cough is the name of
A) cough due to Borodetella pertusis .
B) cough due to haemophyles influenza
C) cough due to adenovirus
D) cough due to respiratory syncytlalvirus.
179. If the birth weight is 3 kg. by the end of one year of age it should become
A) 6 kg
B) 9 kg
C) 12 kg
D) 15 kg.
180. The physical quality of the Life Index considers
I. Expectancy of life at birth.
II. Expectancy of life at age one.
III. Infant mortality rate
IV. Literacy rate. .
Of these :
A) I alone is correct
B) I and II are correct
C) I, II and III are correct ~- ~
D} II, III and IV are correct.
181. Rh Negative mother should receive anti D-gamma globulin after delivery if
A) Baby is Rh positive and Coomb's positive
B) Baby is Rh positive and Coomb's negative
C) Baby is Rh negative and Coomb's negative
D) All of these.
182. Placenta praevia is diagnosed by
A) Vaginal examination
B) X-ray abdomen
C) History of vaginal bleeding
D) Ultrasonogram.
183. The common clinical symptom in Schizophrenia includes all. except
A) Thought disturbance
B) Mfect disturbance
C) Memory loss
D) Ambivalence.
184. Delusions are not found in
A) Personality disorder
B) " Schizophrenia
C) . Mood disorder
D) "Organic Brain Syndrome.
.
185. Neurological properties of Antipsychotic drugs include all. except ~;ic
.A) Anticholinergic
B) Anticonvulsant
C) Antidopaminergic
D) Anti-emetic.
186. Electroconvulsive therapy is most effective in the treatment of
A) Organic brain syndrome
B) Dllusional disorder "~
C) Depressive disorder
D) Neurotic disorder .
187. Audiological evaluation is necessary under the following conditions, except in
A) proven or suspected intrauterine infection
B) bacterial meningitis
C) birth weight > 3 kg,
D} delayed speech or language development.
188. Tumer syndrome is associated with
A) Ventricular septal defect
B} Co-arctation of aorta
C) Dextrocardia
D} Tetralogy of Fallot.
189. The following is the c~T1ica1 hallmark of classical haemophilia.
A) Epistaxis
B} Hemarthrosis
C) Hemoptysis
D)Hemetemesis.
190. Couvelaire uterus is diagnosed by
A) Clinical symptoms
B) Foetal death ( in utero }
C) .Laparotomy
D} All of these;
191. The umbilical cord contains :';
A) one vein and one artery I
B) two veins and one artery
C) .one vein and two arteries
D} two veins and two arteries.
192. The following cardiovascular changes t~e place in pregnancy, except
A) increase in heart rate
B) increase in cardiac output rgc,tc
C) increase in blood volume ~
D) " increase in systolic blood pressure.
193. Phobias would be least likely to occur in conjunction with or as manifestation of
which of the following disorders ?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Sociopathy
C) Obsessive compulsive disorder
D) Anorexia Nervosa.
194. All the following statements about Hyperventilation Syndrome are true. except
A) it may lead to respiratory accidosis
B) it may often be associated with a drop in serum calcium
C) it is often associated with panic di~order
D) peripheral vaso-constriction is present.
195. Normal Pressure Hydro-Cephalus is usually associated with Dementia. Gait
disturbance and 'cc'.
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Seizures
C) Visual hallucinations
D) Nominal aphasia.
196. Which of the following disorders has most frequent positive family history ?
A) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
B) School phobia !7"'~
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Generalized anxiety disorder .
197. Adverse effects following Ganja use include all the following. except
A) Delirium –
B) Flashback
C) Chronic Psychosis.
D) Bradycardia.
198. Drug Of, choice in delirium tremens is ,
A) Diazepam
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Disulfiram
D) Morphine.
199. The plane of clevage of dIssecting aneurysm of Aorta Is
A) along Tunica Intima
B) along Tunica Media
C) along Tunica Adventitia
D) along any plane. .
200. Red coloured Urine In Porphyria Is due to
A) Porphobilinogen
B) Protoporphyrin
C) delta ALA
D) .Uroporphyrinogen.
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