TNPSC 11th October 2003
Assistant Surgeon Exam
Question Paper Code: A
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1. Stave
cells are present in
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D)
Thymus.
2.
Parasympathetic component is present in all, except
A) S 2. 3. 4 spinal segments
B)
Occulomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D)
Facial nerve.
3. Left
gonadal vein drains into
A) Inferior vena cava
B)
Left renal vein
C) Splenic
vein
D) Left
internal iliac vein.
4.
Herringbone pattern of the duct system is seen in
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Parotid gland
D)
Submandibular gland.
5.
Charcot's artery of cerebral haemorrhage is a branch of
A) Middle cerebral
B)
Anterior cerebral
C) Posterior communicating
D)
Posterior cerebral.
6. The
Commonest type of vermiform appendix is
A) Sub-caecal
B)
Splenic
C) Retro-caecal
D)
Promontoric.
7 ..Coracoid
process is an example for
A)
Pressure epiphysis
B) Traction epiphysis
C) Atavistic epiphysis ,
D) Aberrant epiphysis.
8. Division of centromere
perpendicular to the long axis of the chromosome
A) Ring chromosome
B) Iso-chromosome
C) Metacentrtc chromosome
D) Philadelphia chromosome.
9. Chemical that arrests the
cell division at Metaphase stage is
A) Trypsin
B) Colchicine
C) Quinacrine
D) Phytohemagglutinin.
10. Chromosonal configuration in
Klinefelter's syndrome is
A) 47, XY, + 21
B) 47, XXX
C) 47, XXY
D) 46, XY.
11. The following are the
boundaries of Douglas Pouch, except
A) anteriorly posterior surface of uterus
B) posteriorly rectum
C) laterally sacrogenital folds
D) floor, rectovaginal fold.
12. The following are the
branches of superior mesentric artery. except
A) Middle colic
B) ileo-colic
C) Left colic
D) Right colic.
13. In aneuploidy. there is
A) non-disjunction in a meiotic division
B) unequal distribution of a pair of homologous chromosomes
C) trisomy for two different chromosomes
D) an exact multiple of the haploid number .
14. The main pancreatic duct is
formed from
A) whole portion of the duct of ventral pancreatic bud
B) distal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
C) proximal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
D) proximal portion of the duct
of ventral pancreatic bud.
15. The bursae that are affected
when a person kneels for a iong time are
A) subcutaneous prepatellar bursae
B) subcutaneous infrapatellar bursae
C) deep infrapetallar bursae
D} suprapatellar bursae.
16. In the hUman embryo. the
yolk sac is a source of
A) Primordial germ cells
B) blood cells
C) fat
D) water .
17. Following are the main characters of large intestine. except .
A) Sacculations
B) Villi
C) Taeniae coli
D) Appendices epiploicae.
18. The lining epithelium of Trachea is
A) simple columnar epithelium .
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) pseudo stratified ciliated
epithelium. ,
D) ciliated columnar
epithelium.
19. The right bronchus is
A) Long. narrow
B) Short, straight
C) Short. oblique
D) Long. oblique.
20. All of the following will support the heart and keep in position,
except
A) sternopericardialligaments
B) ligamerlts of vertebral column I
C) Diaphragmatic Attachment
D) attachment of pericardium to great vessels.
21. The initial thromboplastin for clotting comes from
A) Platelets
B) Liver
C) Mast cells
D) Damaged vessel wall and surrounding tissues.
.
22. First degree heart block is identified in the E.C.G. by
A) prolonged QRS complex
B) shortened QRS complex
C) Prolonged P- R inteIVal
D) prolonged P-R inteIVal with dropped beats of the ventricles.
23. The physiological split of the second heart sound is better heard
during
A) breath holding
B) Inspiration .
C) expiration
D) valsalva manouevre.
24. Marey's law states
A) ~ blood pressur~ is inversely proportional to heart rate
B) heart rate is inversely proportional to blood pressure
C) heart rate is directly proportional to blood pressure
D) blood pressure is directly proportional to heart rate.
25. Inspiration is characterised
by all, except
A) increased venous return -"'
B) increased heart rate
C) increased negative intrathoracic pressure
D) increased arterial pressure.
26. The overall normal ventilation-perfusion ratio is
A) 0.2
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.8.
27. Oxygen therapy is not useful in the following conditions, except
A) Anaemia
B) Pulmonary oedema
C) Stagnant hypoxia
D) Histotoxic hypoxia.
28. As urine enters the renal 'collecting ~ucts, it is
A) Hypotonic
B) Isotonic
C) Hypotonic or Isotonic but never Hypertonic
D) Isotonic or HypertoniC but never Hypotonic.
29. Hypernatremia can cause the following, except
A) cessation of ADH release from posterior pituitary
B) increased circulating levels of atriarnartriuretic peptide
C) increased tonicity of E.C.F. compartment
D) dehydration of ~tracellular fluid compartment.
30. Pineal gland is the chief source of
A)Melatonin
B) Seratonin
C) Bradykinin
D) Histamine.
31. Pituitary exerts very little
control on the regulation of secretion of
A) Thyroxine
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Glucocorticoid.
32. Thyroxine is stored in the thyroid gland in the fonn of
A) Tri-iodothyronine
B) Tetra-iodothyronine
C) ThyroglobuliJi
D) Gamma Globulin
33. Calcium absorption in the
small intestine is increased by
A) presence of oxalates in the diet
B) increased absorption of Sodium in the gut
C) j 1 -25 dihyroxy cholecalciferol
D) presence of Iron in the gut epithelium.
34. During nonnal menstrual cycle. ovulation occurs as a result of
A) excess Oestrogen level
B) low Oestrogen level
C) surge of leutlnizing hormone
D) low level of HCG.
35. Failure of the testis to descend ( Cryptorchidism) :
A) is associated with failure to produce testosterone
B) does not interfere with fertility
C) should be treated by injections of- testosterone
D) makes it more prone to malignant change. 'c -
..
36. Loss of Liver function tends to cause all. except
A) a fall in the level of alpha and beta but not gamma globulins
B) increase in breast size ( gynaecomastia ) in male
C) a rise in the level of unconjugated bilinIbin in the blood
D) a rise in the plasma urea level. .'
37. Duchenne's muscular
dystrophy, a congenital muscular disorder due to
absence of muscle protein,
A) Actin .
B) Myosin
C) Dystrophin
D) Troponin.
38. In Sensory Aphasia,
A) Wemick's area is damaged
B) spoken word is not understood
C) there 1s incoherence in spoken words
D) there is word blindness.
39. Which one of the following is not the extrapyramidal tract ?
A) Reticulospinal "
B) Corticospinal
C) Vestibulospinal
D) Olivospinal.
40. A patient shows involuntary athetoid movements. He probably has
A) lesion in the cerebral cortex
B) hypothalamic lesion
C) cerebellar lesion
D) lesion in basal ganglion.
41. Fetal haemoglobin
A) disappears from circulation after birth
B) has dissociation curve identical to maternal haemoglobin
C) is identical immunochemically to maternal haemoglobin
D) " is identical physiochemically to maternal haemoglobin.
42. Elevate T4 Reduced T3 Uptake
together suggest the likelihood of
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) ~Hypothyroidism
C) Secondary hyperthyroidism
D) Increased TBG .
43. Catecholamine brings
immediate hyper-glycemic effect by the follow
processes, except
A) glycogenolysi is promoted
B) increasing fructose 1, 6 Bisphosphatase activity
C) inhibiting uptake of amino acids
D) inhibiting insulin secretioIl
44. Cushing's syndrome is characterised by the following features,
except
A) poor muscle development
B) .poor wound healing
C) salt and water retention ,.(
D) decrease in cardiac size.
45. The vehicles of transport of triacyl glycerol from the liver to
extrahepatic tiSSt
" are
A) chylomicrons
B) low density lipoproteins
C) high density lipoproteins
D) very low density lipoproteins.
46. Prostoglandins are liberated
in the circulation by the stinlulation of
A) anterior pituitary gland
B) posterior pituitary gland
C) adrenal gland .
D) thyroid gland.
47. The concentration of
sphingomyelins is increased in
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Fabry's disease
C) Fabrile's disease
D) Niemann-Pick disease.
48. Ref sum's disease is due to the defect in the following type of
oxidation in fal
acid
A) Alpha oxidation
B) Beta oxidation
C) Gamma oxidation
D) Omega oxidation.
49. Serum sodium and potassium are estimated using the following
technique :
A) Electrophoresis ,.
B) Flame photometry
C) Colorimetry
D) Chromatography.
50. Milk is rich in all the
following, except
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium.
51. The acid base disturbance met in diabetic ketoacidosis is
A) respiratory acidosis
B) respiratory alkalosis
C) metabolic alkalosis .
D) metabolic acidosis.
52. All of the following substfmces have been used to .estimate GFR,
except
A) Inusulin
B) Creatinine
C) Phenol red
D)Mannitol.
53. The nephrotic syndrome is characterised by the following features,
except
A) Massive proteinuria exceeding 3 gm in 24 hours urine
B) J Serum cholesterol level is below 150 mg/ dl
C) Serum albumin is below 2.5 gm/dl
D) Elevated a 2 globulin in serum.
54. Normal level of inorganic phosphate in plasma of a normal adult is
A) 9- 11 mg/dl
B) 8-13 mg/dl
C) 3- 4 mg/dl
D) 3- 5 gms/dl.
---
55. Hypokalemic Acidosis with normal anion GAP occurs in all. except
A) Renal failure
B) Uretero sigmoidostomy
C) Acute diarrhoea
D) Diuretic therapy.
56. .In protein bound Iodine,
the substance which is bound to protein is
A) T 3 and T 4
B) T 3 alone
C) Iodine..
D) T4 alone
57. Sodium level in serum is increased in
A) Addison's disease
B) Hashimoto's disease
C) Carcinoid syndrome .
D) Cushing's syndrome. "
58. The most sensitive diagnostic enzyme for hepatic jaundice is /
A) Acid phosphatase ;.
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C).SGPT
.D) SGOT.
59. Elevation of the following honnone occurs in .~heochromocytoma' :
A) Anderosterone ,
B) Catecllolamine I
C) Glucocorticosteroid
D) Mineralocorticosteroid. °~,
60. van den Bergh Test is biphasic in
A) Hepatocellular jaundIce
B) Hemolytic anaemia
C) Obsti"uctive jaundice
D) Rh incompatibility.
61. Excessive bleeding from
birth canal and uterus in amniotic fluid embolism due to
A) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
B) Pulmonaryoedema ! ;';'~~(
'C) Pulmonary vasoconstriction" ~
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.-
62. Spl.eenic infarct is, a
A) pale infarct
B) red infarct
C) septic infarct
D) bland infarct.
63. Wound healing by replacement
of fibrous tissue is
A) repair
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) resolution.
64. The commonest benign tumour
of salivary gland is
A) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma
B) Monomorphic salivary adenoma
C) Warth1n's tumour
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
65. Under normal conditions
rigor mortis develops
A) after 24 hrs
B) after 48 hrs
C) immediately
D) within 4- 8 hrs.
66. Commonest histologic type of
lung can~r is
A)Adenocarcinoma
B) , Adenosquamous carcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma. ~
67. Ballooning degeneration is a
feature of
A) Chronic active hepatitis ,
B) Chronic persistent hepatitis
C)Acute viral hepatitis
D) Fulminant hepatitis.
68. Mental retardation is
characteristic of
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Marfan's syndrome .
C) Trisomy-21
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.
69. The most common cause of
primary hyperparathyroidism is
A) primary hyperplasia
B) parathyroid adenoma
C) parathyroid carcinoma
D) MEN syndrome Type I.
70. In shock. the renal changes
are
A) Acute tubular necrosis
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Chronic venous congestion
D) Chronic glomerulonephritis.
71. Adherence of neutrophil and
monocyte to the vascular endothelium prior tc
movement into extravascular compartment is called
A) Margination
B) Diapedesis
C) Pavementing
D) Clotting.
72. Mallory body ireen in the
following, except
A) AlCOholiC liver disease
B) Indian childhood cirrhosis
C) primarY biliary cirrhosis
D) yellow fever .
73. IgA is mostly synthesized by
A) , Payer's patches of small intestine
B) .1 plasma cells of bone marrow
C) partetal cells of gastric mucose
D) none of these. ,
74. Lymphomas ate monoclonal
only. This can be detected by
A) .special stain study
B) chromosomal study..,,' \,;j
C) isoenzyme markers and clonal gene rearrangements ,
D) enzyme histochemistry and karyotyping.
75. mcerative lesions in typhoid
fever in intestine aI;e ~: !
A) J longitudinal ulcers
B) superficial ulcers .j~
C) transverse ulcers
D) transmural ulcers. ""rif"
76. Which of the following
markers is associated with placental trophoblastl
tumor ?
A) Human placental lactogen
B) .Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Carcinoembryonil antigen
D) Acid phospholase.
77. Exfoliative cytology is
useful for the diagnosis of
A) Meningioma
B) Multiple Myeloma
C) Cervical cancer
D) Teratoma of ovary .
78.The first malignancy In which
cancer suppressor gene was discovered is
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Hepatoblastoma
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Nephroblastoma.
79. The tumour suppressor gene
is
A) P-53
B) bcl-2
C) C-erb
D) ras.
80. The following are mainly
Intracellular parasites, except
A).J Echinococcus granulosus
B) Leishmania donovan!
C) Plasmodium vivax
D} Toxoplasma Gondii. ,
81. Prodrug is
A) lI1inactlve drug which gets activated in body
B) metabolic end product
C) drug which competes with another for metabolism
D) drug which Increases efficiency of another drug. k /
82. Therapeutic Index of a drug
.
A) denotes its utility In diseases
B) .,I denotes its margIn of safety
C) gives clue for its Interaction with other drugs .
D) deternlines the potency of the drug.
83. All of the following drugs
are microsomal enzyme inducers, except
A) carbamazeplne
B) cimetidlne
C) chloral hydrate
D) refampicln.
84. When the rate of elimination
is directly proportional to drug concentration, it is
A) zero order kinetics
B) first order kinetics
C) second order kinetics
D) third order kinetics.
85. The follo~g general
anaesthetics sensitlse the myocardium to epinephr
except
A) Diethyl ether/ ;~
B) Halothane
C) Chloroform
D). Cyclopropane.
86. Drug combination which
produces Neuroleptanalgesia is
A) Droperidol + Fentanyl + Nitrous oxide
B) Droperidol + Ketamine
C) Droperidol + Fentanyl
D) Droperidol + Theopental + Nitrous oxide.
87. The drug of choice to
prolong the duration of action of xylocaine is
A) Norepinephline
B) Phenylephrine
C) Desmopressin .
D) Epinephrine.
88. The spinal anaesthesia
rnaygive riSe to the following side effects, except
A) hypotension
B) hepatic necrosis
C) headache
D) cardiac arrest.
89. One of the following drugs
produces dissociative anaesthesia :
A) chloroform
B) halothane
C) ketarnine
D) none of these.
90. Protamine sulphate reverses
the effect of one of the following agents: :'(~tl
A) Meperidine
B) Atropine
C) Hepartn
D) Strychnine.
.
91. The following agents are
used in Acute Myocardial Infarction. -except
A) FibrinolytiC
B) Aspirin
C) Antifibrinolytics
D) Heparin.
92.Gingival hyperplasia is a
side effect of one of the following drugs :
, .; .-,.
A) Diphenyl hydantoin
B).INH
C) Tetracycline
D) Vitamins.
93. The safest tetracycline for
extra-renal Infection in a patient with renal failure is
A) J Methacycline
B)Oxytetracycline
C) Doxycycline
D) Demeclocycline.
94. The vitamin given
forprophyIms of Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis is
A)Isotretinoin ,
B) Thiamine
C) RiboflaVin
D)Pyridoxine
95. Quinidine is contraindicated in
A)Atrial flutter
B) Atrial fibrillatiOnJ
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Digitalis toxicity .
96..All of the.. following drugs
are used in Hypertensive emergencies, exC(!pt
A)Hydrallazine
B), labetalol
C) Minoxidil .
D) Thiazide.
97. The Beta Blocker with local
Anesthetic effect is ~ ~(.t5<
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol ~
C) Pindolol
D) T1moloL
98. Rebound hypertension is seen
with
A) Thiazide
B) Reserpine
C) Guanethidene
D) " Clonidine.
.
99. Which of the following drugs is used to dissolve Gall bladder stone
?
A) Clofibrate
B) " Chenodeoxycholic acid
C) I..actulose
D) Lithocholic acid.
lOO. Which of the following
drugs is not an antitussive ?
A) ti Meperidine
B) Noscapine
C)- Codeine
D) Diphenhydramine.
101. Common cause of Kussmaul's
sign is
A) Tricuspid incompetence
B) Acute left ventricular
failure
C) J Constrictive pericarditis
D) Ebstein's disease.
102. The commonly recommended
investigation. to detect and study the arteri~
insufficiency of a limb is
A) Pulse oxymeter
B) Doppler Duplex Imaging
C) Arteriography
D) Digital subtraction angiography.
103. Which of the following
personality disorders has been linked to Alcoholism :
relatives ?
A) Borderline
B) Histrionic
C) Antisocial
D) Avoidant.
104. What is the major area of
Brain implicated in Alzheimer's disease and Arnnes1
disorders ?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Thalamus'
D) Parietal lobe.
105. All of the following
statements about Delirium are true. except
A) illusion may occur
B) autonomic dysfunction may occur
C) it usually resolves without treatment
D) cognitive impairment is worse at night.
106. Choose the nonatherogenic lipoprotein :
A) Low densitylipt>protein
B} Very low density lipoprotein
J
C) Cholestrol
D) "' High density lipoprotein.
107. Down's syndrome babies die
of
A) accidents
B) cardiac failure
C) acute Myeloid Leukaemia
D) all of these.
108. Strider in infancy is due
to
A) asthmatic bronchitis
B) bronchiolitis
C) nasal block .
D) ,1 acute laryngotracheal bronchitis.
109. Milk feeds are
contraindicated in -~.:~,
A)~ Galactosemia
B) Phenyl ketonuria
C) Hereditary lactose intolerance.
D) .J A11 of these.
110. Which drug is used in the
treatment of neurocysticercosis ?
A)Mebendazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Albendazole
D) Pyrantel Pamoate
111. Name the drug used for increasing breast milk secretion.
A) Prednisolone
B) Metranidazole
C) .1 Metodopramide
D) Cizapride.
112. What complication will you
suspect when a child with diarrhoeal dehydration.
develops hypotonia and paucity of limb movements ?
A) Poliomyelitis
B) Acute renal failure
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyponatremia.
113. Wtlat vafcine is
specifically recommended for children with nephrc
syndjme ?
A) I. 'Pneumococcal vaccine
B) Haemophilus Influenza vaccine
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine.
114. What is the most likely
diagnosis when a neonate has respiratory distre
scaphoid abdomen and a deXtroposed heart ?
A) Kartagner's syndrome
B) "' Diaphragmatic hernia
C) Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
D) Choana! atresia.
115. Malignant pustule is caused
by
A) Ps. Aerogenosa
B) B. Anthrax
C) Cl. Welschii
D) Anaerobic Streptococci.
116. Investigation of choice to
demonstrate Vesicoureteric Reflux is
A) IVP
B) Cystoscopy
C) -i Contrast MCU
D) Isotope GYstogram.
117. When a patient with a
history of fall presents days later with headache a
progressive neurological deterioration. the diagnosis is
A) acute subdural Haematoma
B) extradural Haematoma
C) J chronic subdural Haematoma
.D) fracture base of skull.
118. Appendicectomy is not advised in
A) recurrent type with abscess
B) recurrent type without abscess
C) gangrene
D) Crohn's disease.
119. Tardy Ulnar pp.lsy is due
to
A) Cubitus Valgus ~
B) Osteo-arthrosis of Elbow
C) Fracture of Lateral Epicondyle of Humerus
D)Arthrodesis of Elboe
120. Klippel-Feil Syndrome is
due to
A) caries of the cervical spine
B) congenital agenesis of one or more cervical spine J
C) agenesis of clavicle and skull bones
D) vitamin deficiency.
121. Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
is differentiated from Orbital cellulitis by
A) J both eyes involved
B) eye movements painful
C) proptosis
D) sub-conjunctival haemorrhage.
122. Coronary Arteries perfuse
the following, except
A) Pericardium
B) " Endocardium
C) Myocardium
D) Sub-endocardium.
123. Bennet's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of
A) 1st Metacarpal
B) lst Metatarsal
C) 2nd Metacarpel
D)4th Metacarpel.
124. When the wound is badly
contaminated with dirt and organic material, which
the following should be done ?
I
A)Amputation
B) Debridement
C) Delayed primary suture
D) Secondary suture.
125. Which of the factors is the
best guideline .to assess the prognosis in bI
cancer ?
,
A) Age of the patient and menstrual status
B) Duration of the tumour
C) Size of the tumour and nodal status./
D) Histological grading of the tumour.
126. Sceleroderma commonly
involves
A) Oesphagus
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Colon.
127. High lactoferin level in
pancreatic juice is found in
A) Hypoparathyroidism
B) Breast Cancer
C) ..fchrOniC pancreatitis
D) , All of these.
128. The most common cause for
the oral cancer is
A) usage of tobacco o
B) presence of leukoplakia
C) presence of sharp .spiky tooth
D) chronic gum disease.
129. Hemorrhagic fever is
associated with the following viral infections, except
A) dengue fever
B) lassa fever
C) J yellow feve~
D) parvovirus infection.
130 All contribute to
atherosclerosis, except
A) consumption of sea foods..
B) oral contraceptives
C) pipe smoking
D) increased amount of consumption of fast food.
131. Concentric diminution of
~ion ( Tunnel vision) occurs in
A) Glaucoma J
B) Retinal diseases
C) Papilloedema progressing to optic atrophy
D) all of these.
132. Myasthenia gravis is
associated with
A) Thymic Aplasia
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) .1 Serum acetyl choline antibodies.
133. What is true ofVitamin K ?
A) Antibiotics interfere with synthesis of Vitamin K
B)- Deficiency common in biliary obstruction
C) Prothrombin time increased in deficiency
D) .I' All are true.
134. Ketoacidosis occurs in
A) Diabetes
B) Alcoholism .
C) St.aIVatlon
D) / All of these.
135. Ascitls Precox occurs in
A) constructive pericarditis
B) cirrhosis of liver
C) inferior vena cava obstruction
D) .1 all of these.
136. St. Depression in Ecs occur
in
A) Angina
.B) Digoxin Toxicity
C) LV Strain
D) All of these.
137. Massive ha:emoptysis with
chest pain occurs in
A)pulmoary infarction
B) dissecting aneurysm
C) myocarditis
D) none of these.
138. The earliest manife~tion of
Sheehan's syndrome is ,
A) Hypotension
B) .1 Failure of lactation
C) Virllization
D) Skin changes.
139. Neuromuscular causes of
dysphagia are the following, except
A) Diphtheria
B) Poliomyelitis
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Histoplasmosis.
140. Thyroid myxoedema can be
differentiated from pituitary myxoedema by
e.xamination of
A) skin changes
B) cardiac enlargement
Harrison 14th Edition Page 2022
C) axillary and pubic hair
D) all of these.
141. Conditions in which obesity
is an associated feature include all, except
A) Laurence Moon-Biedl syndoome .
B) Steven Leventhal syndrome
C) . Grave's disease
D) Cushing's syndrome.
142. Diarrhoea is a
manifestation in thefollowiIig conditions, except
A) Pheochromocytoma
B) Carcinoid syndrome
C) Addison's disease
D) Myxoedema.
143. Causes of dark coloured
urine are
A) Haemogloblnuria
B) Alkaptanuria
C) Methaemoglobinuria
D) " all of these.
144. All are associated with
massive proteinuria, except
A) AmyloidOSiS'(1 :'f
B) Renal vein thrombosis
C) i PolycystiC" ~dney
D) Polyarteritis nodosa. ~.1 ~
145. Causes of exudative
pleuja1 effusion include all. except
A)Meig's syndrome
B) Pulmonary infarction
C) Carcinoma of bronchus
D) Pneumonia.
146. Incorrect about ARDS is
A) high tidal volume
B) high respiratory rate
C) high lung compliance {
D) high pulmonary capillary pressure.
147. Wolff-Parkinson-White
syndrome is characterised by all. except
A) prolonged P .R interval
B) wide QRS complex and delta wave
C) congenital condition
D) verapamil should not be used. "
148. All are true in
disseminated inftavascular coagulation. except
A) prothrombin time prolonged
B) partial thromboplastin time prolonged
C) thrombin time prolonged
D) platelet count increased-
149. Sullage consists of
A) Solid vegetable waste matter
B) Inorganic waste
C) Waste containing human excreta
D) Waste water from kitchen. ~~
150. The systematic study of
human disease and social factors is
A)Social physiology :~'c.
B) Social pathology ..-~~
C) Socialised medicine
D ) Social medicine..
151" The freshly prepared ORS (
Oral Rehydration Solution) should not be used aft
A) 6 hours.
B) 12 hours
C) 18 hou~s
D) 24 hours.
152. WHO defines anaemia in
pregnancy as Hb less than
A) 6.5 G%
B) 8.5 G%
C) 11 G%
D) 12 G%.
153. Foeto-maternal transfusion
is detected by
A) .1 Kleihauser's test
B) Spectrophototherapy
C) Benzidine test
D) none of these.
154. In carcinoma of cervix with
spread to lateral pelvic walls, treatment of choice 1:
A) surgery
B) chemotherapy
C) -.I radiotherapy
D) intracavitory radiotherapy.
155. Least common complication
of fibroid is
A) Calcification
B) .Red degeneration
C) Hyaline change
D) Jl\I1alignancy.
156. Uncommon cause of
infertility in female is
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Tuberculosis ,
C) Gonorrhoea
D) IMycoplasma.
157. Insulin requirement in a
pregnant diabetic woman is decreased in
A) bacterial infection
B) viral infection
C) exercise
D) .,I hyperemesis gravidarum.
158. Iron prophylaxis in a
pregnant woman is started at
A) 6 weeks
B) ./ 10 weeks -
C) 16 weeks
D) 20 weeks.
159Carcinoma ceIVix\may be
caused by
A) Herpes simplex
B) Syphilis
C) Papilloma virus if
D) 1iichomonas.
160. )e most common cause of
hypoftbrtnogenaemia Is
A) Foetal death in utero-
B) Abruptio placenae
C) Placenta previa
D) Septic abortIon.
161. The most common
presentation in anencephaly Is
A)Facei.
B) Brow
C) Vertex
D) Shoulder.
162. Encirclage operation stitch
should be removed 'v
A) after delivery
B) at labour
C) at 38 weeks
D) at-28 weeks.
163. Congenital atresIa of the
lower genital tract may cause
A) Menorrhagia
B) Second~ Amenorrhoea
C) Hypomenorrhoea'
D) Cryptic menorrhoea.
"
164. The treatment of choice for
choriocarcinoma Is
A) Methotrexate ,
B) RadIcal hysterectomy
C) Radium
D) External radiotherapy.
165. Greenish vaginal dIscharge
with severe Itching Is due to ,
A) CandidiasIs
B) Senile vaginitis
C) Trichomoniasis .
D) pyogenic vaginitis.
166. .Clue Cells' are diagnostic of
A) Trtchomoniasis
B) Candidiasis
C) Chlamydia
D) , Haemophilus vaginalis vaginitis.
167. The regional lymph node to the ovary is
A) common iliac.
B) internal iliac
C) inferior epigastriC"
D) I para-aortlc.
168. The ratio of weight of mature placenta to that. of the foetus at
term is
A) 1 : 2
B) 1 : 4
C) , 1 : 6
D) 1 : 8.
169. Following are the sampling techniques used to conduct community
hea11
surveys, except
A) Simple random
B) Systemati
C) Stratified
D) Cluster testing.
170. Which of the following is primordial prevention ?
A) Action taken prior to the onset of disease
B) " Prevention of emergence of develQpment. of risk factors
C) Action taken to remove the possibility that a disease will ever occur
D) Action which halts the progress of a disease.
171. WHO was established in
A) 1945
B) 11948
C) 1950
D) 1956.
I172. Match List I correctly
with List D and select your answer using the codes give
below:
: List I List D
a) Papaya fruit 1. Calcium
b) Soya beans 2. VitammC
c) Ragi 3. Protein
id) Amla fruit 4. Vitamin A.
Codes:
/ a b c d
A) 4 3 I 2 ;,
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1 ift";
D) I 2 3 4.
173. Salk vaccine is a
A) Live vaccine
B) Live atteriuated vaccine
C) Killed vaccine
D) Toxoid.
174. The commonest mode of
transmission of AIDS in India is ~
A) Transplacental,
homosexual, heterosexual
B) Homosexual, heterosexual, transplacental
C) Heterosexual, transplacental, homosexual
D) Heterosexual, homosexual, transplacental.
.
175. Conventional contraceptive includes one of the following :
A) Condom
B) Copper- T
C) Oral pills
D) Tubectomy.
176. In which stage of the
demographic cycle is India ?
A) High stationary .,
B) Late expanding
C) Early stationary
D) Low stationary.
177. Framingham Heart Study is
an example of
A) Case control stud
B) Cohort study
C) Cross-sectlonal study" ,
D) Interventional study.
178. Hundred day cough is the
name of
A) cough due to Borodetella pertusis .
B) cough due to haemophyles influenza
C) cough due to adenovirus
D) cough due to respiratory syncytlalvirus.
179. If the birth weight is 3
kg. by the end of one year of age it should become
A) 6 kg
B) 9 kg
C) 12 kg
D) 15 kg.
180. The physical quality of the
Life Index considers
I. Expectancy of life at birth.
II. Expectancy of life at age one.
III. Infant mortality rate
IV. Literacy rate. .
Of these :
A) I alone is correct B) I and II are correct
C) I, II and III are correct ~- ~ D} II, III and IV are correct.
181. Rh Negative mother should
receive anti D-gamma globulin after delivery if
A) Baby is Rh positive and Coomb's positive
B) Baby is Rh positive and Coomb's negative
C) Baby is Rh negative and Coomb's negative
D) All of these.
182. Placenta praevia is
diagnosed by
.A) Vaginal examination
B) X-ray abdomen
C) History of vaginal bleeding
D) Ultrasonogram.
183. The common clinical symptom
in Schizophrenia includes all. except
A) Thought disturbance
B) Mfect disturbance
C) Memory loss
D) Ambivalence.
184. Delusions are not found in
A) Personality disorder
B) " Schizophrenia
C) . Mood disorder
D) "Organic Brain Syndrome.
.
185. Neurological properties of Antipsychotic drugs include all. except
~;ic
.A) Anticholinergic
B) Anticonvulsant
C) Antidopaminergic
D) Anti-emetic.
186. Electroconvulsive therapy
is most effective in the treatment of
A) Organic brain syndrome
B) Dllusional disorder "~
C) Depressive disorder
D) Neurotic disorder .
187. Audiological evaluation is
necessary under the following conditions, except in
A) proven or suspected intrauterine infection
B) bacterial meningitis
C) birth weight > 3 kg,
D} delayed speech or language development.
188. Tumer syndrome is
associated with
A) Ventricular septal defect
B} Co-arctation of aorta
C) Dextrocardia
D} Tetralogy of Fallot.
189. The following is the
c~T1ica1 hallmark of classical haemophilia.
A) Epistaxis
B} Hemarthrosis
C) Hemoptysis
D)Hemetemesis.
190. Couvelaire uterus is
diagnosed by
A) Clinical symptoms
B) Foetal death ( in utero }
C) .Laparotomy
D} All of these;
191. The umbilical cord contains
:';
A) one vein and one artery I
B) two veins and one artery
C) .one vein and two arteries
D} two veins and two arteries.
192. The following
cardiovascular changes t~e place in pregnancy, except
A) increase in heart rate
B) increase in cardiac output rgc,tc
C) increase in blood volume ~
D) " increase in systolic blood pressure.
193. Phobias would be least
likely to occur in conjunction with or as manifestation of
which of the
following disorders ?
A) Schizophrenia
B) Sociopathy
C) Obsessive compulsive disorder
D) Anorexia Nervosa.
194. All the following
statements about Hyperventilation Syndrome are true. except
A) it may lead to respiratory accidosis
B) it may often be associated with a drop in serum calcium
C) it is often associated with panic di~order
D) peripheral vaso-constriction is present.
195. Normal Pressure Hydro-Cephalus
is usually associated with Dementia. Gait
disturbance and 'cc'.
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Seizures
C) Visual hallucinations
D) Nominal aphasia.
196. Which of the following
disorders has most frequent positive family history ?
A) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
B) School phobia !7"'~
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Generalized anxiety disorder
.
197. Adverse effects following
Ganja use include all the following. except
A) Delirium -
B) Flashback
C) Chronic Psychosis.
D) Bradycardia.
198. Drug Of, choice in delirium tremens is ,
A) Diazepam
B) Chlorpromazine
C) Disulfiram
D) Morphine.
199. The plane of clevage of
dIssecting aneurysm of Aorta Is
A) along Tunica Intima
B) along Tunica Media
C) along Tunica Adventitia
D) along any plane. .
200. Red coloured Urine In
Porphyria Is due to
A) Porphobilinogen
B) Protoporphyrin
C) delta ALA
ID) .Uroporphyrinogen.
1.
Stave Cells -
Spleen
2.
Trochlear Nerve
3. Left
Renal Vein
4.
Pancreas
5. Miuddle
cerebral
6.
Retrocaecal
7.
Atavistic
8.
Isochromosome - confirmed
9.
Colchicine
10. 47XXY
11.
Boundaries of Pouch of Doughlas except
Laterally - sacrogential . The actual lateral relation is
Rectouterine fold
12. All are
branches of Sup Mesenteric Artery except Left Colic
13.
Non Disjunction - Confirmed
14.
Distal portion of dorsal duct -
confirmed
15.
subcutaneous infrapatellar
16.
Blood cells - Gray . Primodial Germ
cells given in few books
17. Villi
18.
Pseudostartified ciliated
19. short
straight
20. ligaments
of vertebral column
21.
Initial thromboplastin for clotting comes
from damaged vessel wall
22. Prolonged
PR Interval
23. Inspiration
24.
A and B are the same. This
question is framed by some one who doesnot understand either English of
mathematics, yet the answer undoubtedly is B.
25. Increased
Arterial Pressure
26. 0.8
27.
Pulmonary Edema. (? Anemia)
28. Hypotonic
or Isotonic, but never hypertonic. Refer Ganong
29. Cessation
of Adh (Harrison)
30. Melatonin
31.
Anterior Pituitary exerts very little
control on secretion of Adrenaline
32.
Thyroglobulin
33. 1,25
dihyfroxy cholecalciferol
34. LH Surge
35. Makes it
prone to malignant
36. Rise in
Urea
37. Dystrophin
38. Wernickes
Area ( This is 00 % corrcct compared with the other choices)
39.
Corticospinal
40. Basal
Ganglion
41.
Fetures of Foetal Hb.Disappears
from Circulation after birth. (All books say that persinstence of
Fetal Hb 1 year after birth is pathological. Answer B and D are 100 %
wrong)
42.
Increased TBG - refer Chaterjee
43. Inhibiting
Amino Acid Uptake
44. Decrease in
Cardiac Size
45. VLDL
46.
No Idea !!!!!!
47. Nieman Pick
48. Alpha
Oxidation - Confirmed
49.
Flame photometry, more properly
called flame atomic emission spectrometry, is a fast, simple, and
sensitive analytical method for the determination of trace metal ions in
solution. Because of the very narrow and characteristic emission lines
from the gas-phase atoms in the flame plasma, the method is relatively
free of interferences from other elements. Typical precision and
accuracy for analysis of dilute aqueous solutions are about ±1-5%
relative. The method is suitable for many metallic elements, especially
for those metals which are easily excited to higher energy levels at
flame temperature -- Na, K, Ca, Rb, Cs, Cu, Ba. Non-metals generally do
not produce isolated neutral atoms in a flame, thus they are not
suitable for determination by flame emission spectroscopy.
50. Iron
51.
Acid Base Disturnabce in DKA is
Met. Acidosis
52. Phenol Red
53. Serum
Cholesterol below 150 mg/dl
54.
C - 3 to 4 mg/dl. Please note
that choice D is gm/dl
55. Renal
Faliure
56.
Iodine
57. Cushings
58. SGPT
59.
Catecholamine
60.
Hepatocellular Jaundice
61.
Bleeding from Birth Canal in Amniotic
Fluid Embolism is due to DIC
62. Pale
Infarct
63. Repair
64. Pleomorphic
Salivary Adenoma
65. within 4 to
8 hours
66.
Adenocarcinoma. ( in India
commonest is Squamous cell carcinoma - but the question (unlike the one
on AIDS) doesnot mention INDIA)
67. Acute Viral
Hepatitis
68. Trisomy 21
69. Adenoma
70. ATN
71.
Adherence of Neutrophil and Monocyte to
vessel wall prior to movement is PAVEMENTING
72. Yellow
Fever
73. Payers
Pathces
74. Isoenzyme
markers and Clonal Rearrangements
- Harrison
75. Long ulcers
76.
Choriocarcinomas secrete HPL
that leads to galactorrhea - Harrison. Check Robbins 1089
77. Ca Cx
78. Rb
79. p 53
80.
Echinococcus
81.
Produrg - Inactive drug which gets
activated in the body
82. safety
margin
83. cimetidine
84. first order
85. di ethyl
ether
86. C -
Droperidol + Fentanyl (Answer A is neurolept ANAESTHESIA)
87. Epinephrine
88. Hepatic
necrosis
89. Ketamine
90. Heparin
91.
Used in AMI Except - Anti
fibrinolytics
92. Phenytoin
93. Doxycycline
94. Pyridoxine
95. Digitalis
Toxicity (Refer Tripathi)
96. Thiazide (
?Minoxidial - no references yet)
97. Pindolol -
From Katsung (Let all those idiots who said
that Katsung is only for All India Go to Hell)
98. Clonidine
99. Cheno deoxy
choic acid - not confirmed
100. Meperidine -
confirmed
101.
Kussmaul sign - Constrictive
pericarditis
102. Doppler
103. Anti social -
Ahuja
104. Hippocampus
105. Usually
resolves without treatment - confirmed
106. HDL
107. ???? Cardiac
Failure ?? Allof the above(ALL , CML is common in Downs - Choice C could
be a trap)
108. ALTB
109. All of these
110. Albendazole
111.
Increae breast milk secretion -
Metoclopromide
112. Hypokalemia
113. Pneumococcal -
Nelson chapter on Pneumoccocal
114. Diaphragmatic
Hernia
115. Antrax
116. Contrat MCU
117. Chrionic SDH
118. Crohn
119. Cubitus Valgus
(Refer Maheswari - Not all cases of Lat epicondyle # leads to Tardy
Ulnar Nerve Plasy. When the # malunites it leads to Cubitus Valgus and
only this cubitus valgus leads to Tardy Ulnar nerve palsy)
120. None is
correct. Take B as answer
121.
Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis -
Answer ? A
122. Endocardium -
confirmed (Visceral layer of serous pericardium is supplied by coronary
arteries - TSR)
123. 1st
Metacarpal
124. Debridment
125. Size of Tumour
and Nodal Status
126. Esophagus
127. High
lactoferrin level in pancreatic juice is found in A - hypoparathyroidism,
B - Breasdt Cancer C - Chronic Pancreatitis D - All of the above ( Any
one explain) Answer as per Oxford Text book of Surgery is
Chronic Pancreatitis..
128. Tobacco
129. Parvo virus
130. Sea foods
131.
Tunnel Vision is seen in ?
Glaucoma ? All
132. Serum Acetly
choline AB (Most likely, though not the correct answer)
133. All are true
134. All
135. ???
136. All of these
(Confirmed)
137. ?? Pulmonary
Infarction
138. Failure to
lactate - harrison
139. Histoplasmonis
140.
140. Thyroid myxoedema can be
differentiated from pituitary myxoedema by e.xamination of B) cardiac
enlargement Harrison 14th Edition Page 2022Harrison 14th
Edition Page 2022
141.
Obesity is seen in all except
Grave
142. Myxedema
143. All
144. All are
associated with massive proteinuria except A Amyloidosis B Renal Veion
Thrombosis C Polycystic Kidney D Polyarteritis Nodisa Answer according
to Harrison is C - PCD - Proteinuira, if it occurs in PCD is minimal
145. Causes of
Exudative Pleural Effusion all except A Meigs B Pulmonary Infarction C -
Ca Bronchus D Pneumonia ( Harrison says that meigs is Exudate)
146. Incorrect
about ARDS is A - High Tidal Volume B - High resp Rate C - High Ling
Compliance D - High Pulmonary Capillary pressure
147. Prolonged PR
Interval
148. Platelet count
increased
149. Kitchen
150. Systematic
study of Human disease and Social factors is A - Social Physiology B -
Social Pathology C - Socialised Medicine D - Social Medicine
151.
Freshly prepared ORS Solution should not
be used after 24 hours
152. 11 gm%
153. Kleihauer
154. RT
155. Malignancy
156. Mycoplasma
157. Exercise
158. 20 weeks
159. Papilloma
160. Foetal death
in Utero
161.
Anencephaly - Face ??
162. 38 weeks
163.
cryptomennorhea
164. Methotrexate
165. Trichomoniasis
166. Hemophilus
167. Par Aortic
168. 1 : 6
169. ???
170. Prevention of
emergnec of risk factors
171.
WHO established in 1948
172. A
173. Killed
174. ????
175. Condom
176. Late expanding
177. Cohort
178. Bordetella
pertussis
179. 9 kg
180. D
181.
Rh negative mother should receive anti D
gamma globulin after delivery if Baby is RH Positive and Coomb’s
Negative - That means that the mother is not yet immunized
182. USG
183. Memory Loss
184. Personalit
disorder / ? Organic Brain syndrome
185. Anticonvulsant
186. Depression
187. Birth weight >
3kg
188. Co arctation
of Aorta
189. Hemarthrosis
190. Laparotomy
191.
Umbilical Cord contains one vein
and 2 arteries
192. increase in
Systolic BP
193. Schizophrenia
194. Resp Acidosis
195. Urinary
Incontinence
196. Bipolar
disorder
197. chronic
psychosis
198. diazepam
199. ??? tunica
media
200. ???
1.Excessive bleeding
from birth canal and uterus in amniotic fluid embolism is due to --
D.DIC
2.Splenic infarct - Pale infarct
3.Wound healing by replacement of fibrous tissue is-repair
4.Commonest benign tumour of salivary gland is-Pleomorphic salivary
adenoma
5.Under normal conditions rigor mortis develops-within 4-8 hrs
6.commonest histologic type of lung cancer is-Adenocarcinoma( Harrison
says-“ In the past 25 years, for unknown reasons, adenocarcinoma has
replaced squamous cell carcinoma as the most frequent histologic subtype
for all sexes and races combined”)
7.Ballooning degeneration is a feature of-Acute viral hepatitis
8.Mental retardation is a characteristic feature of-Trisomy 21
9.Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism-parathyroid adenoma
10.In shock,the renal changes are-Acute tubular necrosis
11.Acid base disturbance met in diabetic ketoacidosis-metabolic acidosis
12.All of the following substances have been used to estimate GFR
except-Phenol red(Inulin,creatinine-well known,mannitol is also
used-refer Gutyon page 307.Phenol red is used for assessment of tubular
function.)
13.Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by all except-Serum cholesterol
level is below 150 mg/dl
14.normal level of inorganic phosphate in plasma of a normal adult
is-3-4 mg/dl
15.Hypokalemic Acidosis with normal anion gap occurs in all,
except-Renal failure
16.IN PROTEIN BOUND IODINE,THE SUBSTANCE WHICH IS BOUND TO PROTEIN
IS--Iodine
17.Sodium level in serum is increased in-Cushing’s syndrome
18.The most sensitive diagnostic enzyme for hepatic jaundice is-SGPT
19.Elevation of the following houmone occurs in pheochromocytoma-catecholamine
20.Vanden bergh test is biphasic in - hepatocellular jaundice
21.Fetal hemoglobin-Disappears from circulation after birth
22.ELEVATED T 4 , LOWERED T 3 UPTAKE TOGETHER SUGGEST THE LIKELIHOOD OF
Increases TBG
23.Catecholamine brings immediate hyperglycemic effect by the following
processed except-inhibiting uptake of amino acids
24.Cushing’s syndrome is characterised by the following features,
except-Decrease in cardiac size
25.The vehicle of transport of triacyl glycerol from the liver to
extrahepatic tissues is-VLDL
26.Prostaglandins are liberated in the circulation by the stimulation
of-Adrenal gland (Harper 254 )
27.The concentration of sphingomyelins is increased in-Niemann-pick
disease
28.Refsum’s disease is due to the defect in the following type of
oxidation in fatty acid-Alpha
29.SERUM SODIUM AND POTASSIUM ARE ESTIMATED USING THE FOLLOWING
TECHNIQUE-Flame Photometry
30.Milk is rich in all the following except-Iron
31.The initial thromboplastin for clotting comes from-Damaged vessel
wall and surrounding tissues.
32.First degree heart block is identified in the ECG by-prolonged P-R
interval
33.The physiological split of the second heart sound is better heard
during-inspiration(Hutchison 175)
34.Marey’s law states-heart rate is inversely proportional to blood
pressure(Chauduri physiology page 232)
35.Inspiration is characterised by all, except-increased arterial
pressure
36.normal ventilation perfusion ratio is-0.8
37.O2 therapy in NOT useful in the following conditions except-Pulmonary
oedema
38.As urine enters collecting duct, it is-- Hypotonic or Isotonic, but
never hypertonic
39.Hypernatremia can cause he following except-cessation of ADH release
from posterior pituitary
40.Pineal gland is the chief source of-Melatonin
41.Prodrug is - inactive drug which gets activated in body
42.Therapeutic index of a drug-Denotes its margin of safety
43.All of the following drugs are microsomal enzyme inducers, except-cimetidine
44.When the rate of elimination is derectly proportional to drug
concentration, it is-First order kinetics
45.The following general anaesthetics sensitise the myocardium to
epinephrin, except-Diethyl ether
46.Drug combination which produces neuroleptanalgesia is-Droperidol +
Fentanyl
47.Drug of choice to prolong the duration of action of xylocaine is-Epinephrin
48.SPINAL ANAESTHESIA MAY GIVE RISE TO THE FOLLOWING SIDE EFFECTS EXCEPT
Hepatic Failure
49.One of the following drugs produces dissociative anaesthesia-ketamine
50.Protamine sulphate reverses the effect of one of the folloing
agents-heparin
51.Anterior pituitary gland exerts very little control on the regulation
of secretion of-Adrenaline
52.Thyroxine is stored in the thyroid gland in the form of-Thyroglobulin
53.Calcium absorption in the small intestine in increased by-1-25
Dihydroxy cholecalciferol
54.During normal menstrual cycle, omulation occurs as a result of-Surge
of LH
55.Failure of the testis to descend(Cryptorchidism) - makes it more
prone to malignant change
56.Loss of liver function tends to cause all except-A rise in the plasma
urea level
57.Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, a conginital muscular disorder due to
the absence of muscle protein-Dystrophin
58.In sensory aphasia - Wernick’s area is damaged
59.which one of the following is not the extrapyramidal tract-Corticospinal
60.A patient shows involuntary athetoid movements.He probably has-lesion
in basal ganglion.
61.Name the drug used for increasing breast milk secretion-metoclopramide
62.What complication will you suspect when a child with diarrhoeal
dehydration develops hypotonia and paucity of limb movements-Hypokalaemia
63.What vaccine is specifically recommended for children with nephrotic
syndrome-Pneumococcal vaccine
64.What is the most likely diagnosis when a neonate has respiratory
distress,Scaphoid abdomen and a dextroposed heart-Diaphragmatic hernia
65.Malignant pustule is caused by-B.anthrax
66.Investigation of choice to demonstrate VUR is-Contrast MCU
67.When a patient with a history of fall presents days later with
headache and progressive neurological deterioration the diagnosis
is-Chronic subdural haematome
68.Appendicectomy is not advised in-Crohns
69.Tardy Ulnar palsy is due to-Fracture of Lateral Epicondyle of humerus
leads to Tardy Palsy, ONLY WHEN THE COMPLICATION IS CUBITAL VALGUS.
Withoit Cubital Valgus (cubitus valgus is but one complication of a
Malunited #) there is no Palsy
70.Klippel geil syndrome is due to-congenital agenesis of one or more
cervical spine
71.Common cause of Kussmaul’s sign is-constrictive pericarditis
72.The commonly recommended investigation to detect and study the
arterial insufficiency of a limb is-Doppler Duplex imaging
73.Which of the following personality disorders has been linked to
alcoholism in relatives-Antisocial
74.What is the major area of Brain implicated in Alzheimer’s disease and
Amnestic disorders-Hippocampus
75.All of the following statements about Delirium are true, except-it
usually resolves without treatment (Neeraj Ahuja 19)
76.Choose the nonatherogenic lipoprotein-HDL
77.Down’s syndrome babies die of-all of the above(accidents,cardiac
failure, AML)
78.Strider in infancy is due to-Acute laryngotracheal bronchitis
79.Milk feeds are contraindicated in-All of these (Galactosemia,
Phenylketonuria, Hereditary lactose intolerance)
80.Which drug is rsed in the treatment of neurocysticercosis-Albendazole
81.The following agents are used in Acute Myocardial Infarction, except-Antifibrinolytics
82.Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of-Diphenyl hydantoin
83.The safest tetracycline for extra0renal infection in a patient with
renal failure is-Doxycycline
84.The vitamin given for prophylaxis of isoniazid induced peripheral
neuritis-pyridoxine
85.Quinidine is contraindicated in-Digitalis toxicity
86.All of the following drugs are used in hypertensive emergencies,
except == Thiazide
87.THE BETA BLOCKER WITH LOCAL ANESTHETIC EFFECT IS-Pindolol Refer
Katsung - The table on beta blockers
88.Rebound hypertension is seen with-Clonidine
89.Which of the following drugs is used to dissolve gall bladder stone-Chenodeoxycholic
acid
90.Which of the following drugs is not an antitussive-meperidine
91.The umbilical cord contains-one vein and two arteries
92.The following cardiovascular changes take place in pregnancy,
except-increase in systolic blood pressure
93.PHOBIAS WOULD BE LEAST LIKELY TO OCCUR IN CONJUNCTION WITH OR AS
MANIFESTATION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISORDERS-ANOREXIA
NERVOSA?????????
94.All the following statements about Hyperventilation syndrome are
true, except-it may lead to respiratory acidosis
95.Normal pressure hydrocephalus is usually associated with dementia,
gait disturbance and -- urinary incontinence.
96.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISORDERS HAS MOST FREQUENT POSITIVE FAMILY
HISTORY-BIPOLAR DISORDER???????
97.Adverse effects following Ganja use include all of the following
except-Bradycardia(Harrison 14th 2514)
98.Drug of choice in delirium tremens is - Diazepam
99.The plane of clevage of dissecting aneurysm of Aorta is-along tunica
media (Davidson 275)
100.Red coloured Urine in porphyria is due to-PBG, ALA, Protoporphyrin
????
101.Adherence of
neutrophil and monocyte to the vascular endothelium prior to movement
into extravascular compartment is called-Margination
102.Mallory body is seen in the following except-yellow fever(opghai
262,Robbins 869)
103.Ig A is mostly synthesized by-Payer’s patches of small intestine
104.LYMPHOMAS ARE MONOCLONAL ONLY.THIS CAN BE DETECTED BY
Isoenzyme markers and Clonal
Rearrangements - Harrison
105.Ulcerative lesions in typhoid fever in intestine are-longitudinal
ulcers
106.Which of the following markers is associated with placental
trophoblastic tumour-Human placental lactogen (Robbins 1089)
107.Exfoliative cytology is useful for the diagnosis of-Cervical cancer
108.The first malignancy in which cancer suppressor gene was discovered
is - Retinoblastoma
109.The tumour suppressor gene is-p-53
110.The following are mainly intracellular parasites, except-Echincoccus
granulosus
111.RH NEGATIVE MOTHER SHOULD RECEIVE ANTI-D GAMMAGLOBULIN AFTER
DELIVERY IF-BABY RH POSITIVE AND COOMB’S Negative.
The paper setter has mentioned that the baby is Rh
Positive and Coomb’s Negative. That means it is Direct coomb’s test that
is done on the baby. That means that there is no antibodies in the
mother’s blood and she has to be given Immunoglobulin. Id the baby is
Coomb’s positive, then the mother ALREADY at present as Antibodies and
Anti D is not useful
112.Placenta praevia is diagnosed by - Ultrasonogram
113.The common clinical syndrome in schizophrenia includes all
except-memory loss
114.DELUSIONS ARE NOT FOUND IN-PERSONALITY DISORDER???????????
115.Neurological properties of antipsychotic drugs include all
except-Anticonvulsant
116.Electroconvulsive therapy is most effective in the treatment
of-Depressive disorder(Davidson 987)
117.Audiological evaluation is necessary under the following conditions,
except in-Birth weight more than 3 kg (OPG 334)
118.Turner syndrome is associated with - Coarctation of aorta
119.The following is the clinical hallmark of classical haemophilia-Hemarthrosis
120.Couvelaire uterus is diagnosed by-Laparotomy
121.WHO was established in-1948
122.matched:
papaya- vit A,soya beans- protein, ragi-calcium, amla fruit-vit c (i.e.choice
A)
123.Salk vaccine is a - Killed vaccine
124.THE COMMONEST MODE OF TRANSMISSION OF AIDS IN INDIA-HETERO,HOMO,TRANSPLACENTAL???????????
125.Conventional contraceptives include one of the following-condom
126.In which stage of the demographic cycle is India-late expanding
127.Framingham heart study-cohort study
128.Hundred day cough is the name of-Bordetella pertussis
129.If the birth weight is 3 kg, by the end of one year of age, it
should become-9 kg
130.PQLI considers-expectancy at one,IMR,literacy rate (ans is choice D)
131.The most common presentation in anencephaly is-Face
132.Encirclage operation stitch should be removed-at 38 weeks (Dutta
184)
133.Congenital atresia of the lower genital tract may cause-Cryptomenorrhoea
134.Treatment of choice for chorio carcinoma is-Methotrexate
135.Greenish vaginal discharge with severe itching is due to-Trichomoniasis
136.Clue cells-Haemophilus vaginalis vaginitis
137.The regional lymph node to the ovary is-Para aortic
138.the ratio of weight of mature placenta to that of the foetus at term
is-1:6
139.Following are the sampling technipues used to conduct community
health surveys, except-. Refer Mahajan and Bhaskar Rao
140.Which of the following is primordial prevention-Prevention of
emergence of development of risk factors
141.The following are the boundaries of Douglas pouch, except-Laterally
sacrogenital folds(Refer chaurasia vol II p.204)
142.The following are the branches of superior mesentric artery
except-Left colic
143.In aneuploidy, there is-Non disjunction in a meiotic division (
refer Davidson)
144.The main pancreatic duct is formed from-Choice B - In Gray and
Embryology Dutta - (Mcgregor !!!)
145.The bursae that are affected when a person kneels for a long time
are-Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursae
146.In human embryo, the yolk sac is a source of-Primordial germ cells.
But Gray says Blood Cells !!!
147.Following are
the main characters of large intestine, except-villi
148.the lining epithelium of trachea is-pseudo stratified ciliated
epithelium
149.The right bronchus - Short,straight
150.ALL OF THE FOLLOWING WILL SUPPORT THE HEART AND KEEP IN POSITION
EXCEPT-LIGAMENTS OF VERTEBRAL COLUMN???????
151.Stave cells are present in-spleen
152.parasympathetic component is present in all, except-Trochlear nerve
153.left gonadal vein drains into-left renal vein
154.Herringbone pattern of the duct system is seen in-pancreas
155.Charcot’s srtery of cerebral haemorrhage is a branch of-middle
cerebral
156.The commonest type of vermiform appendix is-retrocaecal
157.Coracoid process is an example for-atavistic epiphysis
158.Division of centromere perpendicular to the long axis of the
chromosome results in-isochromosome
159.Chemical that arrests the cell division at metaphase stage is-Colchicine
160.Chromosomal configuration in klinefelter’s syndrome is-47 XXY
161.the freshly prepared ORS should not be used after-24 hours
162.WHO defines anaemia in pregnancy an Gb less than - 11 g%
163.Foeto maternal transfusion detected by-Kleihauser’s test
164.In carcinoma of cervix with spread to lateral pelvic walls,
Treatment of choice is-radiotherapy Referene Please
165.least common complication of fibroid is-malignancy
166.uncommon cause of infertility in female is-mycoplasma(shaw 160)
167.INSULIN REQUIREMENT IN A PREGNANT DIABETIC WOMAN IS DECREASED IN--?HYPEREMESIS
GRAVIDARUM ? Exercise
168.IRON PROPHYLAXIS IN A PREGNANT WOMAN IS STARTED AT-16TH /20th
WEEK
169.Carcinoma cervix may be caused by-papilloma virus
170.The most common cause of hypofibrinogenaemia is - abruptio placentae
/ septic Abortion/ IUD
171.Conditions in which obesity is an associated feature include all
except-Grave’s disease
172.Diarrhoea is a manifestation in the following conditions except-myxoedema
173.causes of dark coloured urine are-all of
these(haemoglobinuria,alkaptonuria,methemoglobinuria)
174.All are associated with massive proteinuria,except-polycystic kidney
175.Causes of exudative pleural effusion include all except-pulmonary
infarction
/ Pneumonia / Meigs / Ca Bronchus
176.Incorrect about ARDS is-high Pulmonary capillary pressure ( In fact
there is increased leakage from capillaries in ARDS )
177.Wolff-parkinson white syndrome is characterised by all
except-prolonged pr interval
178.All are true in DIC except-platelet count increased
179.Sullage consists of-waste water from kitchen
180.the systematic study of human disease and social factors is-social
medicine ????
181.Concentric diminution of vision ( Tunnel vision ) occurs in-all of
these(Glaucoma,l retinal diseases ,papilloedema progressing to optic
atrophy)
182.Myasthenia gravis is associated with-Serum acetyl choline antibodies
183.What is true of vitamin k-all are true
184.ketoacidosis occurs in-all of these(diabetes,alcoholism,starvation)
185.Ascitis precox occurs in-constrictive pericarditis
186.ST depression in ecg occur in-all of these
187.massive haemoptysis with chest pain occurs in-pulmonary infarction
188.The earliest manifestation of Sheehan’s syndrome is-failure of
lactation(Harrison p 1993)
189.Neuromuscular causes of dysphagia are the following except-histoplasmosis
190.THYROID MYXOEDEMA CAN BE DIFFERENTIATED FROM PITUITARY MYXOEDEMA BY
THE EXAMINATION OF ?? Axillary Hair
191.Cavernous sinus thrombosis is differntiated from orbital cellulitis
by-both eyes involved (Rao 215)
192.Coronary arteries perfuse the following, except-endocardium
193.Bennet’s fracture dislocation is of base of-first metacarpal
194.when the wound is badly contaminated with dirt and organic material,
which of the following should be done-debridement
195.which of the factors is the best guideline to assess the prognosis
in breast cancer-size of the tumour and nodal status
196.scleroderma commonly involves-oesophagus
197.HIGH LACTOFERRIN LEVEL IN PANCREATIC JUICE IS FOUND IN-Chronic
Pancreatitis. Refer Oxford Text book of Surgery
198.the most common cause for the oral cancer is-usage of tobacco
199.Haemorrhagic fever is associated with the following viral
infections, except-parvovirus infection
200.All contribute to atherosclerosis, except
-- consumption of sea foods
