TNPSC 11th October 2003
Assistant Surgeon Exam
Question Paper Code: A
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1. Stave
cells are present in
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D)
Thymus.
2.
Parasympathetic component is present in all, except
A) S 2. 3. 4 spinal segments
B)
Occulomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D)
Facial nerve.
3. Left
gonadal vein drains into
A) Inferior vena cava
B)
Left renal vein
C) Splenic
vein
D) Left
internal iliac vein.
4.
Herringbone pattern of the duct system is seen in
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Parotid gland
D)
Submandibular gland.
5.
Charcot's artery of cerebral haemorrhage is a branch of
A) Middle cerebral
B)
Anterior cerebral
C) Posterior communicating
D)
Posterior cerebral.
6. The
Commonest type of vermiform appendix is
A) Sub-caecal
B)
Splenic
C) Retro-caecal
D)
Promontoric.
7 ..Coracoid
process is an example for
A)
Pressure epiphysis
B) Traction epiphysis
C) Atavistic epiphysis ,
D) Aberrant epiphysis.
8. Division of centromere
perpendicular to the long axis of the chromosome
A) Ring chromosome
B) Iso-chromosome
C) Metacentrtc chromosome
D) Philadelphia chromosome.
9. Chemical that arrests the
cell division at Metaphase stage is
A) Trypsin
B) Colchicine
C) Quinacrine
D) Phytohemagglutinin.
10. Chromosonal configuration in
Klinefelter's syndrome is
A) 47, XY, + 21
B) 47, XXX
C) 47, XXY
D) 46, XY.
11. The following are the
boundaries of Douglas Pouch, except
A) anteriorly posterior surface of uterus
B) posteriorly rectum
C) laterally sacrogenital folds
D) floor, rectovaginal fold.
12. The following are the
branches of superior mesentric artery. except
A) Middle colic
B) ileo-colic
C) Left colic
D) Right colic.
13. In aneuploidy. there is
A) non-disjunction in a meiotic division
B) unequal distribution of a pair of homologous chromosomes
C) trisomy for two different chromosomes
D) an exact multiple of the haploid number .
14. The main pancreatic duct is
formed from
A) whole portion of the duct of ventral pancreatic bud
B) distal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
C) proximal portion of the duct of dorsal pancreatic bud
D) proximal portion of the duct
of ventral pancreatic bud.
15. The bursae that are affected
when a person kneels for a iong time are
A) subcutaneous prepatellar bursae
B) subcutaneous infrapatellar bursae
C) deep infrapetallar bursae
D} suprapatellar bursae.
16. In the hUman embryo. the
yolk sac is a source of
A) Primordial germ cells
B) blood cells
C) fat
D) water .
17. Following are the main characters of large intestine. except .
A) Sacculations
B) Villi
C) Taeniae coli
D) Appendices epiploicae.
18. The lining epithelium of Trachea is
A) simple columnar epithelium .
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) pseudo stratified ciliated
epithelium. ,
D) ciliated columnar
epithelium.
19. The right bronchus is
A) Long. narrow
B) Short, straight
C) Short. oblique
D) Long. oblique.
20. All of the following will support the heart and keep in position,
except
A) sternopericardialligaments
B) ligamerlts of vertebral column I
C) Diaphragmatic Attachment
D) attachment of pericardium to great vessels.
21. The initial thromboplastin for clotting comes from
A) Platelets
B) Liver
C) Mast cells
D) Damaged vessel wall and surrounding tissues.
.
22. First degree heart block is identified in the E.C.G. by
A) prolonged QRS complex
B) shortened QRS complex
C) Prolonged P- R inteIVal
D) prolonged P-R inteIVal with dropped beats of the ventricles.
23. The physiological split of the second heart sound is better heard
during
A) breath holding
B) Inspiration .
C) expiration
D) valsalva manouevre.
24. Marey's law states
A) ~ blood pressur~ is inversely proportional to heart rate
B) heart rate is inversely proportional to blood pressure
C) heart rate is directly proportional to blood pressure
D) blood pressure is directly proportional to heart rate.
25. Inspiration is characterised
by all, except
A) increased venous return -"'
B) increased heart rate
C) increased negative intrathoracic pressure
D) increased arterial pressure.
26. The overall normal ventilation-perfusion ratio is
A) 0.2
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 0.8.
27. Oxygen therapy is not useful in the following conditions, except
A) Anaemia
B) Pulmonary oedema
C) Stagnant hypoxia
D) Histotoxic hypoxia.
28. As urine enters the renal 'collecting ~ucts, it is
A) Hypotonic
B) Isotonic
C) Hypotonic or Isotonic but never Hypertonic
D) Isotonic or HypertoniC but never Hypotonic.
29. Hypernatremia can cause the following, except
A) cessation of ADH release from posterior pituitary
B) increased circulating levels of atriarnartriuretic peptide
C) increased tonicity of E.C.F. compartment
D) dehydration of ~tracellular fluid compartment.
30. Pineal gland is the chief source of
A)Melatonin
B) Seratonin
C) Bradykinin
D) Histamine.
31. Pituitary exerts very little
control on the regulation of secretion of
A) Thyroxine
B) Testosterone
C) Adrenaline
D) Glucocorticoid.
32. Thyroxine is stored in the thyroid gland in the fonn of
A) Tri-iodothyronine
B) Tetra-iodothyronine
C) ThyroglobuliJi
D) Gamma Globulin
33. Calcium absorption in the
small intestine is increased by
A) presence of oxalates in the diet
B) increased absorption of Sodium in the gut
C) j 1 -25 dihyroxy cholecalciferol
D) presence of Iron in the gut epithelium.
34. During nonnal menstrual cycle. ovulation occurs as a result of
A) excess Oestrogen level
B) low Oestrogen level
C) surge of leutlnizing hormone
D) low level of HCG.
35. Failure of the testis to descend ( Cryptorchidism) :
A) is associated with failure to produce testosterone
B) does not interfere with fertility
C) should be treated by injections of- testosterone
D) makes it more prone to malignant change. 'c -
..
36. Loss of Liver function tends to cause all. except
A) a fall in the level of alpha and beta but not gamma globulins
B) increase in breast size ( gynaecomastia ) in male
C) a rise in the level of unconjugated bilinIbin in the blood
D) a rise in the plasma urea level. .'
37. Duchenne's muscular
dystrophy, a congenital muscular disorder due to
absence of muscle protein,
A) Actin .
B) Myosin
C) Dystrophin
D) Troponin.
38. In Sensory Aphasia,
A) Wemick's area is damaged
B) spoken word is not understood
C) there 1s incoherence in spoken words
D) there is word blindness.
39. Which one of the following is not the extrapyramidal tract ?
A) Reticulospinal "
B) Corticospinal
C) Vestibulospinal
D) Olivospinal.
40. A patient shows involuntary athetoid movements. He probably has
A) lesion in the cerebral cortex
B) hypothalamic lesion
C) cerebellar lesion
D) lesion in basal ganglion.
41. Fetal haemoglobin
A) disappears from circulation after birth
B) has dissociation curve identical to maternal haemoglobin
C) is identical immunochemically to maternal haemoglobin
D) " is identical physiochemically to maternal haemoglobin.
42. Elevate T4 Reduced T3 Uptake
together suggest the likelihood of
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) ~Hypothyroidism
C) Secondary hyperthyroidism
D) Increased TBG .
43. Catecholamine brings
immediate hyper-glycemic effect by the follow
processes, except
A) glycogenolysi is promoted
B) increasing fructose 1, 6 Bisphosphatase activity
C) inhibiting uptake of amino acids
D) inhibiting insulin secretioIl
44. Cushing's syndrome is characterised by the following features,
except
A) poor muscle development
B) .poor wound healing
C) salt and water retention ,.(
D) decrease in cardiac size.
45. The vehicles of transport of triacyl glycerol from the liver to
extrahepatic tiSSt
" are
A) chylomicrons
B) low density lipoproteins
C) high density lipoproteins
D) very low density lipoproteins.
46. Prostoglandins are liberated
in the circulation by the stinlulation of
A) anterior pituitary gland
B) posterior pituitary gland
C) adrenal gland .
D) thyroid gland.
47. The concentration of
sphingomyelins is increased in
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Fabry's disease
C) Fabrile's disease
D) Niemann-Pick disease.
48. Ref sum's disease is due to the defect in the following type of
oxidation in fal
acid
A) Alpha oxidation
B) Beta oxidation
C) Gamma oxidation
D) Omega oxidation.
49. Serum sodium and potassium are estimated using the following
technique :
A) Electrophoresis ,.
B) Flame photometry
C) Colorimetry
D) Chromatography.
50. Milk is rich in all the
following, except
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Phosphorus
D) Sodium.
51. The acid base disturbance met in diabetic ketoacidosis is
A) respiratory acidosis
B) respiratory alkalosis
C) metabolic alkalosis .
D) metabolic acidosis.
52. All of the following substfmces have been used to .estimate GFR,
except
A) Inusulin
B) Creatinine
C) Phenol red
D)Mannitol.
53. The nephrotic syndrome is characterised by the following features,
except
A) Massive proteinuria exceeding 3 gm in 24 hours urine
B) J Serum cholesterol level is below 150 mg/ dl
C) Serum albumin is below 2.5 gm/dl
D) Elevated a 2 globulin in serum.
54. Normal level of inorganic phosphate in plasma of a normal adult is
A) 9- 11 mg/dl
B) 8-13 mg/dl
C) 3- 4 mg/dl
D) 3- 5 gms/dl.
---
55. Hypokalemic Acidosis with normal anion GAP occurs in all. except
A) Renal failure
B) Uretero sigmoidostomy
C) Acute diarrhoea
D) Diuretic therapy.
56. .In protein bound Iodine,
the substance which is bound to protein is
A) T 3 and T 4
B) T 3 alone
C) Iodine..
D) T4 alone
57. Sodium level in serum is increased in
A) Addison's disease
B) Hashimoto's disease
C) Carcinoid syndrome .
D) Cushing's syndrome. "
58. The most sensitive diagnostic enzyme for hepatic jaundice is /
A) Acid phosphatase ;.
B) Alkaline phosphatase
C).SGPT
.D) SGOT.
59. Elevation of the following honnone occurs in .~heochromocytoma' :
A) Anderosterone ,
B) Catecllolamine I
C) Glucocorticosteroid
D) Mineralocorticosteroid. °~,
60. van den Bergh Test is biphasic in
A) Hepatocellular jaundIce
B) Hemolytic anaemia
C) Obsti"uctive jaundice
D) Rh incompatibility.
61. Excessive bleeding from
birth canal and uterus in amniotic fluid embolism due to
A) Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
B) Pulmonaryoedema ! ;';'~~(
'C) Pulmonary vasoconstriction" ~
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation.-
62. Spl.eenic infarct is, a
A) pale infarct
B) red infarct
C) septic infarct
D) bland infarct.
63. Wound healing by replacement
of fibrous tissue is
A) repair
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) resolution.
64. The commonest benign tumour
of salivary gland is
A) Pleomorphic salivary adenoma
B) Monomorphic salivary adenoma
C) Warth1n's tumour
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
65. Under normal conditions
rigor mortis develops
A) after 24 hrs
B) after 48 hrs
C) immediately
D) within 4- 8 hrs.
66. Commonest histologic type of
lung can~r is
A)Adenocarcinoma
B) , Adenosquamous carcinoma
C) Oat cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma. ~
67. Ballooning degeneration is a
feature of
A) Chronic active hepatitis ,
B) Chronic persistent hepatitis
C)Acute viral hepatitis
D) Fulminant hepatitis.
68. Mental retardation is
characteristic of
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Marfan's syndrome .
C) Trisomy-21
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.
69. The most common cause of
primary hyperparathyroidism is
A) primary hyperplasia
B) parathyroid adenoma
C) parathyroid carcinoma
D) MEN syndrome Type I.
70. In shock. the renal changes
are
A) Acute tubular necrosis
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Chronic venous congestion
D) Chronic glomerulonephritis.
71. Adherence of neutrophil and
monocyte to the vascular endothelium prior tc
movement into extravascular compartment is called
A) Margination
B) Diapedesis
C) Pavementing
D) Clotting.
72. Mallory body ireen in the
following, except
A) AlCOholiC liver disease
B) Indian childhood cirrhosis
C) primarY biliary cirrhosis
D) yellow fever .
73. IgA is mostly synthesized by
A) , Payer's patches of small intestine
B) .1 plasma cells of bone marrow
C) partetal cells of gastric mucose
D) none of these. ,
74. Lymphomas ate monoclonal
only. This can be detected by
A) .special stain study
B) chromosomal study..,,' \,;j
C) isoenzyme markers and clonal gene rearrangements ,
D) enzyme histochemistry and karyotyping.
75. mcerative lesions in typhoid
fever in intestine aI;e ~: !
A) J longitudinal ulcers
B) superficial ulcers .j~
C) transverse ulcers
D) transmural ulcers. ""rif"
76. Which of the following
markers is associated with placental trophoblastl
tumor ?
A) Human placental lactogen
B) .Alpha-fetoprotein
C) Carcinoembryonil antigen
D) Acid phospholase.
77. Exfoliative cytology is
useful for the diagnosis of
A) Meningioma
B) Multiple Myeloma
C) Cervical cancer
D) Teratoma of ovary .
78.The first malignancy In which
cancer suppressor gene was discovered is
A) Neuroblastoma
B) Hepatoblastoma
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Nephroblastoma.
79. The tumour suppressor gene
is
A) P-53
B) bcl-2
C) C-erb
D) ras.
80. The following are mainly
Intracellular parasites, except
A).J Echinococcus granulosus
B) Leishmania donovan!
C) Plasmodium vivax
D} Toxoplasma Gondii. ,
81. Prodrug is
A) lI1inactlve drug which gets activated in body
B) metabolic end product
C) drug which competes with another for metabolism
D) drug which Increases efficiency of another drug. k /
82. Therapeutic Index of a drug
.
A) denotes its utility In diseases
B) .,I denotes its margIn of safety
C) gives clue for its Interaction with other drugs .
D) deternlines the potency of the drug.
83. All of the following drugs
are microsomal enzyme inducers, except
A) carbamazeplne
B) cimetidlne
C) chloral hydrate
D) refampicln.
84. When the rate of elimination
is directly proportional to drug concentration, it is
A) zero order kinetics
B) first order kinetics
C) second order kinetics
D) third order kinetics.
85. The follo~g general
anaesthetics sensitlse the myocardium to epinephr
except
A) Diethyl ether/ ;~
B) Halothane
C) Chloroform
D). Cyclopropane.
86. Drug combination which
produces Neuroleptanalgesia is
A) Droperidol + Fentanyl + Nitrous oxide
B) Droperidol + Ketamine
C) Droperidol + Fentanyl
D) Droperidol + Theopental + Nitrous oxide.
87. The drug of choice to
prolong the duration of action of xylocaine is
A) Norepinephline
B) Phenylephrine
C) Desmopressin .
D) Epinephrine.
88. The spinal anaesthesia
rnaygive riSe to the following side effects, except
A) hypotension
B) hepatic necrosis
C) headache
D) cardiac arrest.
89. One of the following drugs
produces dissociative anaesthesia :
A) chloroform
B) halothane
C) ketarnine
D) none of these.
90. Protamine sulphate reverses
the effect of one of the following agents: :'(~tl
A) Meperidine
B) Atropine
C) Hepartn
D) Strychnine.
.
91. The following agents are
used in Acute Myocardial Infarction. -except
A) FibrinolytiC
B) Aspirin
C) Antifibrinolytics
D) Heparin.
92.Gingival hyperplasia is a
side effect of one of the following drugs :
, .; .-,.
A) Diphenyl hydantoin
B).INH
C) Tetracycline
D) Vitamins.
93. The safest tetracycline for
extra-renal Infection in a patient with renal failure is
A) J Methacycline
B)Oxytetracycline
C) Doxycycline
D) Demeclocycline.
94. The vitamin given
forprophyIms of Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis is
A)Isotretinoin ,
B) Thiamine
C) RiboflaVin
D)Pyridoxine
95. Quinidine is contraindicated in
A)Atrial flutter
B) Atrial fibrillatiOnJ
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Digitalis toxicity .
96..All of the.. following drugs
are used in Hypertensive emergencies, exC(!pt
A)Hydrallazine
B), labetalol
C) Minoxidil .
D) Thiazide.
97. The Beta Blocker with local
Anesthetic effect is ~ ~(.t5<
A) Metoprolol
B) Atenolol ~
C) Pindolol
D) T1moloL
98. Rebound hypertension is seen
with
A) Thiazide
B) Reserpine
C) Guanethidene
D) " Clonidine.
.
99. Which of the following drugs is used to dissolve Gall bladder stone
?
A) Clofibrate
B) " Chenodeoxycholic acid
C) I..actulose
D) Lithocholic acid.
lOO. Which of the following
drugs is not an antitussive ?
A) ti Meperidine
B) Noscapine
C)- Codeine
D) Diphenhydramine.
101. Common cause of Kussmaul's
sign is
A) Tricuspid incompetence
B) Acute left ventricular
failure
C) J Constrictive pericarditis
D) Ebstein's disease.
102. The commonly recommended
investigation. to detect and study the arteri~
insufficiency of a limb is
A) Pulse oxymeter
B) Doppler Duplex Imaging
C) Arteriography
D) Digital subtraction angiography.
103. Which of the following
personality disorders has been linked to Alcoholism :
relatives ?
A) Borderline
B) Histrionic
C) Antisocial
D) Avoidant.
104. What is the major area of
Brain implicated in Alzheimer's disease and Arnnes1
disorders ?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Thalamus'
